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Angelina_Jolie [31]
3 years ago
9

Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period.

English
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]3 years ago
7 0
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "False." Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period. The statement that is shown above is not true to Shakespeare's 1.
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