How many fluid ounces are there in 8 pints 5 cups?
2 answers:
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From the above function, it is clear that the value of f is never 0. Hence the statement that is true is (Option E), See explanation of same below.
<h3>What is the explanation for the above function?</h3>Note that the function is related to Euler's number which is depicted as:
e ≈ 2.7182. The function is given as:
f(x) = 100 *
Assuming x = -2, we'd have:
100 * 2.7182
= 271.82
= 0.00001353354
Hence, even when x tends < 0 the function f(x) thus, is never 0. See the attached graph for confirmation.
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