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alisha [4.7K]
4 years ago
7

After all revenue and expense accounts have been closed at the end of the fiscal year, Income Summary has a debit of $2,450,000

and a credit of $3,000,000.Journalize the entries required to complete the closing of the accounts on December 31. Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles. How does grading work?
Business
1 answer:
murzikaleks [220]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

income summary   550  debit

     retained earnings      550 credit

--to close income sumary against RE--

Explanation:

To complete the closing entries we should determinate the balance of the Income Summary account and then, transfer into Retained Earnings.

 Income Summary

<u>   Debit        Credit   </u>

2,450

<u>                    3,000    </u>

Balance          550

We will debit income summary so his blanace ends in zero and credit retained earnings so net income is accumualted and added into equity to represent it in the balance sheet.

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A company has a beginning retained earnings balance of $100,000. It has net income for the current year of $50,000 and paid $10,
Brut [27]

Answer:

The ending balance of retained earnings for the company $ 140.000

Explanation:

Retained Earnings increase the balance with the Net Income of each year that it's not withdrawalled by the owner or because are not paid dividends, to this case the owner only withdraw $10.000 of $50.000 generated during the year.

4 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2019, Metlock, Inc. had the following stockholders' equity accounts. Common Stock ($10 par value, 82,100 shares is
Gemiola [76]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a. On Jan 15

Cash Dividend  $91,952    (82,100 shares × $1.12)

       To Dividend payable $91,952

(Being the dividend is declared is recorded)

b. On Feb 15

Dividend payable $91,952

      To cash $91,952

(Being the dividend is paid)

c. On April 15

Stock Dividend $131,360  (82,100 shares × $16)

          To Common stock dividend distributable  $82,100 (82,100 shares × $10 × 10%)

          To Paid in capital in excess of par - common stock $49,260

(Being the declaration of the stock dividend is recorded)

d. On May 15

Common stock dividend distributable $82,100 (82,100 shares × $10 × 10%)

            To Common stock $82,100

(Being the issue of the shares for the stock dividend is recorded)

e. On July 1

No journal entry is required

f. On Dec 1

Cash Dividend  $108,372    (180,620 shares × $0.60)

       To Dividend payable $108,372

(Being the dividend is declared is recorded)

The 180,620 shares are come from

= (82,100 + 8,210) × 2

= $180,620

g. On Dec 31

Retained earnings $200,324   ($108,372 + $91,952)

      To Dividend payable  $200,324

(Being the cash dividend is closed)

h. On Dec 31

Retained earnings $131,360 (82,100 shares × $16)

      To Stock dividend $131,360

(Being the stock  dividend is closed)

i. On Dec 31

Income summary Dr $290,000

   To Retained earning $290,000

(Being the net income is closed)

Only these journal entries are required

6 0
3 years ago
You are going to value Lauryn’s Doll Co. using the FCF model. After consulting various sources, you find that Lauryn's has a rep
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

Value of the company is $140.70

Explanation:

We need first of all turn the equity beta from an unlevered to a levered beta with the below formula:

BU = BL / [1 + ((1 - Tax Rate) x Debt/Equity)]

BL=BU*[1 + ((1 - Tax Rate) x Debt/Equity)]

BU is levered beta

BL is the levered beta which is unknown

tax rate is 30% or 0.3

debt/equity =0.4

BU is 1.7

BL=1.7*[1 + ((1 - 0.3) x 0.4)

BL=1.7*(1+(0.7*0.4)

BL=1.7*(1+0.28)

BL=1.7*1.28

BL=2.176

Cost of equity=Rf+beta*market risk premium

Rf is the risk free rate of 6%

market risk premium is 11%

cost of equity=6%+2.176*11%

cost of equity=6%+23.94%

cost of equity =29.94%

In valuing the company the stock price formula below can be adapted

stock price=Do*(1+g)/(r-g)

Do is the dividend but can be replaced with a proxy free cash flow,since dividend per share is meant to compute price of one share,but FCF is to calculate the value of the entire company.

The free cash flow is computed below

FCF=EBIT*(1-t)+depreciation and amortization-capital expenditure-net increase in working capital

FCF=$56*(1-0.3)+$5.6-$5.3-$2.7

FCF=$36.8 million

g is the growth rate of FCF at 3%

r is the cost of equity of 29.94%

value of the company=$36.80*(1+3%)/(29.94%-3%)

value of the company=$36.80*1.03/0.2694

                                     =$140.70

5 0
3 years ago
Wayfair sent five different versions of their email to customers to determine which message was most effective at getting custom
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer: Field experiments

Explanation:

Field experiments is referred to as or known as randomly assigning the subjects to either control groups or treatment, done in order to access the claims of the causal relationships. The random assignment tends to help in order to establish comparability of control group and treatment, such that any differences in between them that tend to emerge after treatment are administered and governed plausibly tends to reflect influence of these treatment instead of the pre-existing differences in between these groups.

7 0
4 years ago
A firm practicing direct price discrimination will charge a higher price to a. ​Consumers known to have an inelastic demand b. ​
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

c) Consumers with an inelastic demand

Explanation:

When the price increase, the demand for the product will decrease. The increase in price makes the customer look for a product substitute with cheaper price. Substitutes will keep the demand elastic since it can change easily.

But some customer has an inelastic demand, which means that their demand does not easily change when the price is increased. This type of customer can't substitute and have no choice but to keep buying even at a higher price.

6 0
3 years ago
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