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sergiy2304 [10]
3 years ago
5

erkins Company uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. The company sold 250,000 units during the current

month. The following data were taken from the company's accounting records: [O4] Beginning inventory Work in Process (Packing Department): none Finished Goods: 75,000 units Ending Inventory Work in Process (Packing Department) (75% complete as to conversion): 16,000 units Finished Goods: 60,000 units What were the equivalent units of production for conversion costs in the Packing Department for the current month?
Business
1 answer:
Svetllana [295]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The equivalent units of production for conversion costs were:

Ending Inventories:

Work in Process - Eqvivalent units (16000*75%) = 12,000

Finished Goods = 60,000

Add:Units sold during the month =250,000

322,000

Less:

Beginning Inventories:

Work in Process - Eqvivalent units = 0

Finished Goods = 75,000

Equivalent Units of Production = 247,000

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Moorman Corporation has an activity-based costing system with three activity cost pools--Processing, Setting Up, and Other. The
Svetlanka [38]

Answer:

<em>Overhead</em><em>:</em>

Other           18,750

Setting up   13,200

Processing 34,850

Explanation:

We multiply each activity cost pool by the rate of each department, then we add them to get the total overhead per department:

<u><em>Processing</em></u>

Depreciation: 55% x 59,000 = 32,450

Indirect labor: 30% x   8,000 =<u>   2,400  </u>

Total:                                           34,850

<u><em>Setting Up</em></u>

Depreciation: 20% x 59,000  =  11,800

Indirect labor: 20% x   8,000  =<u>   1,600  </u>

Total:                                            13,200

<u><em>Other</em></u>

Depreciation: 25% x 59,000  =  14,750‬  

Indirect labor: 50% x   8,000  =<u>  4,000  </u>

Total:                                           18,750

4 0
3 years ago
Assume the following: The variable portion of the predetermined overhead rate is $3.00 per direct labor-hour. The standard labor
Artemon [7]

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $3,000 favorable

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Standard quantity= 3*15,000= 45,000 hours

Actual quantity= 44,000 hours

Standard rate= $3 per hour

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (45,000 - 44,000)*3

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $3,000 favorable

4 0
3 years ago
Warranty service, processing of complaints, and costs of litigation are examples of Multiple Choice appraisal costs. internal fa
zhannawk [14.2K]

Examples of internal failure costs include warranty service and complaint handling. As a result, choice b is accurate.

<h3>What do you mean by internal failure cost?</h3>

Internal failure costs are expenses related to flaws discovered prior to the client receiving the good or service. External failure costs are expenses related to flaws discovered after the client has purchased the good or service.

Internal failure costs are quality expenses related to product flaws found before a product leaves the facility.

Hence, warranty services all are examples of the internal failure cost.

Learn more about internal failure costs:

brainly.com/question/14802565

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Although you may not have received the e-mail we have been informed that the division head of the Finance Department is leaving
Orlov [11]

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

The sentence is too long and it is missing proper punctuations(like a comma). Reading it without punctuation does not provide room for breathing and therefore needs editing. It will be correct if framed like this; Although you may not have received the e-mail, we have been informed that the division head of the Finance Department is leaving at the end of the month. This sentence has a comma in the right place.

8 0
3 years ago
define a stock market bubble, describe what happens after a bubble, and explain how the law of supply and demand creates both bu
Stells [14]

Answer

<u>A bubble is a phenomena in investing that occurs when investors increase their demand in assets so much that they cause the price to move to a value beyond accurate reflection of its actual worthiness</u>. When a bubble happens, <u>the prices of stock will fall rapidly</u>.When there is increase in the share price of stock rapidly caused by individual-perpetuating, the share value can rise beyond asset value making investor to withdraw their money faster because <u>supply will exceed demand and cause share price to fall.</u>

An increase demand on assets by investors will make the price to increase beyond rational economic value. The real worth of the stock will now be determined by firm’s performance. Investing in bubble can appear to last forever, but because they are formed by self-perpetuated reasons, they eventually fall and the money that was invested into them is lost. In such cases, investors would run to withdraw their money and avoid the loss of fall in share prices.

8 0
3 years ago
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