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stira [4]
3 years ago
5

The failure of Lehman Brothers was due in large part to_____________.A. Understating allowance for loan losses B. Use of Repo 10

5 transactionsC. Aggressive valuation of marketable securitiesD. Accelerating recording revenue into an earlier period than warranted
Business
1 answer:
Wittaler [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: B. Uso de transacciones del Repo 105.

Explanation:

The Lehman Brothers bankruptcy case describes one of the events that led to the most important bankruptcy in history.

The collapse of Lehman in September 2008 was the consequence of a fatal combination of intricate accounting rules, complex derivatives, greed, excessive leverage and the complacency of rating agencies. In addition, it was the trigger for a chain reaction in all financial institutions that suffered from panic and the frozen liquidity that followed later.

Lehman's equivalent of pre-paid transactions is Repo 105, a fascinating term that, from now on, will become the new example to deceive analysts and investors.

Through these transactions, Lehman Brothers was able to reduce leverage on the right side of the balance sheet and, at the same time, reduce assets (some of them undesirable) on the left side. Duplicate Repo 105 transactions between the end of 2006 and May 2008, were known within the company, exceeded the self-imposed limits by the firm and typically occurred at the end of each quarter, when financial information had to be released.

The fact is as simple as the Repo 105 program transformed a financial transaction into an asset disposal.

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A business owned by shareholders, also called stockholders, who own the rights to the company's profits but face only limited liability for the company's debts and losses.

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4 years ago
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About _____ percent of adults over age 90 have lost all functional vision.
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7%........................

4 0
3 years ago
You are considering investing in a zero-coupon bond that sells for $250. At maturity in 16 years it will be redeemed for $1,000.
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

Therefore the annual rate of growth 9%.

Explanation:

To find the annual rate, we use the following formula,

Fv=Pv(1+i)^n

Fv= future value

Pv= present value.

i= rate of interest

n= time.

Here Pv=$250, Fv= $1,000, n= 16 years

\therefore1,000=250(1+i)^{16}

\Rightarrow (1+i)^{16}=\frac{1000}{250}

\Rightarrow   i=4^{\frac1{16}}-1

\Rightarrow i=0.09  (approx)

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6 0
3 years ago
Activity-based costing for a service business
shtirl [24]

Answer:

a. $56

b. $95

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a, The total monthly activity-based cost for Corner Cleaners Inc is

= $3.50 × 12 + $0.12 × 100 + $0.10 × 20

= $42 + $12 + $2

= $56

b  the total activity-based cost for Campbell’s visit i

= $8 × 1 + $25 × 3 + $4 × $3

= $8 + $75 + $12

= $95

Hence, the same should be considered and relevant

3 0
3 years ago
Calculate working capital based on the following:
Georgia [21]

Answer:

Working capital $550,000

Explanation:

Given that

The Current ratio is 2:1

Inventory is $200,000

And, the quick ratio is 1:7

Now as we know that

Current ratio = Current assets ÷ current liabilities

2.1 = Current assets ÷ current liabilities

2.1 current liabilities = current assets

And, the quick ratio is

Quick ratio ÷ quick assets ÷ current liabilities

1.7 = (Current assets - inventory) ÷ current liabilities

1.7 = (Current assets - $200,000) ÷ current liabilities

1.7 current liabilities = current assets - $200,000

Now put the value of current liabilities

1.7 current liabilities = 2.1 current liabilities - $200,000

$200,000 = 2.1 current liabilities - 1.7 current liabilities

$200,000 = 0.4 current liabilities

So, current liabilities

= $200,000 ÷ 0.4

= $500,000

Now the current assets = 2.1 × $500,000

= $1,050,000

Now the working capital is

= Current assets - current liabilities  

= $1,050,000 - $500,000

= $550,000

6 0
3 years ago
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