Answer:
Taylorism
Explanation:
Taylorism, often referred to as Scientific Management, was the first theory of management to focus specifically on analyzing and optimizing workflows. These theories of process optimization helped drive the Fordist shift to mass production which occurred in the early part of the 20th Century. Taylorism can be boiled down to 4 principal points: The method of doing a task should be informed by a scientific investigation of the task , employees should be selected and carefully trained for tasks ,tasks should have detailed instructions and should be subject to supervision and management should evaluate tasks and formulate optimized approaches for the workers to follow .
Some forms of analysis might be done by timing how long it takes a worker to do a task, others by weighing raw materials. Process analysis, for Taylor, had to look at both the minutiae of the process composition and the detail of the physical acts required to complete the process. The elements of process improvement Taylor advocated for were successful in regards to processing materials; changing the way steel was cut and patenting that process. Yet, during his life, Taylor struggled to achieve quite the same success improving the efficiency of workers. Taylorism was first scientifically understanding how the production process worked and then supporting the managers of a workplace to intimately train workers to work at maximum efficiency. This way, the means towards higher returns is paved with a well-managed, harmonious relationship between managers and workers. In theory, this would have been a much more sustainable model for an organization. But despite that promise, people, although genetically similar, are intrinsically unique and complex. Aligning different minds and ushering people to a new way of working (from individual craft, to standardized production), sometimes require more time and effort than bringing in a new piece of technology.
Answer:
The loss of the financial institution is $413,000
Explanation:
Let's say that after 3 years the financial institution will receive:
0.5 * 10% of $10million
= 0.5 * 0.1 * 10000000
= $500,000
Then, they will pay 0.5 * 9% of $10M
= 0.5 * 0.09 * 10000000
= $450,000
Therefore, their immediate loss would be $500000 - $450000
= $50000.
Let's assume that forward rates are realized to value the rest of the swap.
The forward rates = 8% per annum.
Therefore, the remaining cash flows are assumed that floating payment is
0.5*0.08*10000000 =
$400,000
Received net payment would be:
500,000-400,000= $100,000. The total cost of default is therefore the cost of foregoing the following cash flows:
Year 3=$50,000
Year 3.5=$100,000
Year 4 = $100,000
Year 4.5= $100,000
Year 5 = $100,000
Discounting these cash flows to year 3 at 4% per six months, the cost of default would be $413,000
Answer:
Organizational Behavior Specialist
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question in regards to the situation, it seems that they should get an Organizational Behavior Specialist to work with the warring executives separately to solve the problem. These specialists analyze, assess, and provide advise to the company on how to solve a problem or improve performance and efficiency within the company.
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Answer:
We can infer from the graph, that about two thirds (around 60%) of the world's population lived in Asia in 2008.
Asia is by far the most populated continent in the world. The two most populous countries of the globe are located in Asia: India, and China, each with over 1 billion people.
