Which of the following statements are true regarding a FICO score’s changing?

The boss praised his hourly employees for their good work. The boss hopes that the praise encourages the employees to continue t

lukranit [14]

Answer: option (A). the boss's praise

Explanation: Reinforcement is the process of encouraging or establishing a belief or pattern of behaviour. in this scenario, The boss praised his hourly employees for their good work. The boss hopes that the praise encourages the employees to continue to work hard. In this example, the reinforcement is the boss praise.The boss hoped the praise would encourage the employees to work harder.

5 0

3 years ago

Assume that the required reserve ratio is 25 percent. If the Federal Reserve sells $120 million in government securities to the

earnstyle [38]

Answer: Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Reserve ratio = 25%

Fed reserve bank sells (securities) to public = $120 million

When a central bank sells the government securities to the public then as a result money supply in an economy decreases. This is an instrument of monetary policy known as " Open market Operations".

The supply of money is directly decreases by $120 million.

and

Money creating potential of banks = Amount of securities × $(\frac{1}{rr} - 1)$

= 120 × $(\frac{1}{0.25} - 1)$

= 120 × 3

= $360 million

Hence, a decrease in money supply could eventually reach a maximum of $360 million.

5 0

3 years ago

Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc

tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

- Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

- Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

- Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

- Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

When a case is appealed, the court of appeals decides the case solely based upon?

finlep [7]

<span>Question of law, also known as point of law. It is a question that must be answered by applying relevant legal principles to interpretation of the law. Answers to questions of law are normally expressed in broad legal principles and can be applied to many situations rather than particular circumstances or factual situations.</span>

3 0

3 years ago

A machine purchased 1 year ago for $85,000 costs more to operate than anticipated. When purchased, the machine was expected to b

goblinko [34]

Answer:

Value of S=$25000.

Explanation:

Value of P= $75000

Value of n= 5 years

Value of AOC= $36000+ $1500k (k=1 to 5)

Since the salvage value would be after 5 years=

S=($75000- $10000*5) = $75000- $50000= $25000.

Value of S=$25000.

4 0

4 years ago