Answer:
%70
Step-by-step explanation:1,000=%100 300+%30 1000 - 300 = 700 so 700 + %70
Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
Answer:
x = 8.2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
the answer is D
Step-by-step explanation:
i got it right
Answer:
Tn = 4(-6)^n-1
Step-by-step explanation:
Write an explicit formula for an, the nth term of the sequence 4, -24, 144, ....
The sequence is a geometric sequence
Tn = ar^n-1
a is the first term
a = 4
r = -24/4 =144/-24
r = -6
Substitute
Tn = 4(-6)^n-1
