Why was the Bill of Rights less powerful in the 19th century?

History

1 answer:

Monica [59]3 years ago

7 0

C is the correct answer.

Prior to the 14th Amendment, the view of the Supreme Court, as articulated in Barron v. Baltimore, was that the Bill of Rights only applied to the Federal Government.

After the 14th Amendment, the rights articulated in the Bill of Rights began to be understood as applying to the States as well.

You might be interested in

Which situation best illustration of effective political advocacy?

Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

It should be D)...The march on Washington..

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What political trend kept german states separate during the middle ages?

Amanda [17]

wanting to not be able to see inside there food so they know all the contents

4 0

3 years ago

How did the reign of terror go against the principles of the French Revolution ?

Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

A period of violence during the French Revolution incited by conflict between two rival political factions, the Girondins and the Jacobins, and marked by mass executions of “the enemies of the revolution.” The death toll ranged in the tens of thousands, with 16,594 executed by guillotine

Explanation:

Hope this helps

7 0

3 years ago

What is one of Williams penns accomplishments

alex41 [277]

He is the founder of the province of Pennsylvania.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

BRAINLIESTTT ASAP!!!! PLEASE ANSWER IN UR OWN WORDS :)<br><br> -What was the encomienda system?

Alecsey [184]

It was the spanish crown attempted to define the status of the indian population in its american colonies. It was basically when the people went from muslim to jews from the reconquest of the muslim spain. Muslim spain was when musilms took over the spain. Hope this helps. P.s this information was from my text book but I changed it into my own words.

4 0

3 years ago