Pure competition or perfect competition is where all firms have full knowledge of what is going on in the market, where there is free flow of information between not only the producers, but also with the consumers.
As such, all firms have no dominant share of market power since each individual firm is able to produce the good of the same quality and quantity (factors of production are fluid, and no costs in transportation in this theory). And at the same time, consumers have full knowledge of the quality of good they are getting and hence no firm will be able to exploit the misinformation of a good for its own profits.
This builds up to the point of a perfectly elastic demand curve, where consumers know what amount and at which price point do they value the product at. And knowing for the fact that small individual firms in a purely competitive firm have no say over prices, they become the price takers for this kind of market. Thus where MB=MC, the equilibrium point is reached and it is also at the socially optimal level since all consumers have full knowledge of the pros and cons of consuming a product (hence no externalities).
Hope this helps!<span />
I think the answer is D but i could be wrong
Answer:
d even if the amount she would have to pay for room and board if she didn't attend college rose by the same amount An increase in opportunity cost reduces Maureen's incentive to attend college.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost in decision making has to do with an alternative foregone. If you make a choice of an alternative over another, therefore the extrinsic cost which is the benefit you will not have, for choosing that alternative is the opportunity cost.
Applying the above to the given scenario, it does not matter the range of increase in the college cost or room and board cost if she did not attend college; It is a general conclusion and a fact that an increase in the level of opportunity costs, it will reduce Maureen's incentive to want to go to college.
Answer:
Profit leverage effect. The explanation of this question is given below in explanation section.
Explanation:
<u>Profit leverage effect</u> holds that $1 in cost savings increases pretax profits by $1, while a $1 increase in sales increases pretax profits by only $1 multiplied by the pretax profit margin.
The profit leverage effect is about reducing operating expenses that is more efficient than increasing sales. It is situated at the start of the production process of a service or product, the procurement stage is in an excellent position to reduce overall costs, especially in the short term. This is why companies often resort to reducing headcount when they run into financial difficulties. Reducing operating costs is the fastest way to produce a short-term impact on the bottom line. A dollar saved in purchasing almost always has a greater impact on profit than a dollar increase in sales. However, it is remember that, only a small portion of each sales dollar makes it to the bottom line. The rest is spent on the costs of doing business—e.g., cost of administrative, goods sold, logistics, and marketing costs. These costs must be deducted from each sales dollar to determine its contribution to operating profit (it is also known as, earnings before interest and taxes). By contrast, every dollar you save through purchasing goes straight to operating profit.