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bulgar [2K]
3 years ago
13

National Art is a new business. During its first year of operations, credit sales were $40,000 and collections were credit sales

of $31,000. One account, $525 was written off. Management uses the percent-of-sales method to account for bad debts expense and estimates 2% of credit sales to be uncollectible. The ending balance of Allowance for Bad Debts account is ________. Do not round until the final answer. Then round to the nearest whole dollar.
Business
1 answer:
zmey [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The ending balance of Allowance for Bad Debts account is $800

Explanation:

The computation of the ending balance of allowance for bad debt is shown below:

= Credit sales × uncollectible rate

= $40,000 × 2%

= $800

The estimated amount would be considered as an allowance for bad debts i.e $800, So no other amount would be come while computing the ending balance of Allowance for Bad Debts account.

However, the other information which is given in the question is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

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Nina is in an interview for a sales job that requires no experience. She is trying to portray herself as a highly enthusiastic,
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

The answer is A

Explanation:

Let re-visit the definition of information asymmetry before we further investigate the scenario. Information asymmetry describes the situation when the two parties are negotiating and one of them have more relevant information/knowledge that helps he/she gains competitive advantages in negotiation over the other party.

In the described scenario, the information that Nina has been fired from her previous job mainly because of her fault rather than any other objective reasons  is of much importance for the interviewer's decision-making in term of hiring Nina. Did the interviewer know this piece of information, he/she may not hire Nina or the negotiating salary level would be pretty much lower.  

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is NOT one of Modigliani and Miller's set of conditions referred to as perfect capital markets?
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

here are their assumptions

  1. All expectations on expected cash flows are homogenous
  2. bonds and shares are traded in perfect markets - there are no transaction costs. two investments with identical cash flows, terms and risk must trade at the same price
  3. investors can borrow and lend at the risk free rate
  4. there are no agency cost
  5. investing and financing decisions are independent of each other
4 0
3 years ago
Why is Earned Value a very powerful tool? Answer: It combines the cost, scope, and ____________ as an integrated tool to calcula
nataly862011 [7]
Answers
1) Time
2) cost analysis or performance measurement.

Explanation


Earned value — it integrates cost, time and the work done (or scope) and can be used to forecast future performance and project completion dates and costs...
7 0
3 years ago
If the government introduced a guaranteed price floor of $40 and agreed to purchase surplus output, then the government's total
vovikov84 [41]
If the government agreed to purchase the surplus output and introduced a guaranteed price floor of $40, then most likely the government <span>'s total support payments to producers would be $4000 per week. We have a 180 quantity demanded and we have 280 quantity supplied, we will get the surplus by subtracting the supply by demand. So, 280 - 180 = 100 x price of 40 = 4000.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Presented below are various account balances of K.D. Lang Inc.
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

a. Contra Liability and expense account

b. Long-term liability

c. Long-term and current liability

d. current liability

e. Long-term liability

f. Current asset

g. Current liability

h. current liability

i. current liability

Explanation:

Req. A, B and C

<em>A.</em> Contra liability is a credit liability account for that has an explicit debit liability account. In that case, unamortized premium on bonds payable is a liability for which there is a premium, which is a debit liability. $3,000 is an expense, so it is an expense account.

<em>B.</em> Since the current year is 2017 and the maturity date is 2021, it is a long-term liability.

<em>C.</em> As $200,000 will be matured at the end of the year, it is a current liability. $800,000 is a long-term liability.

Req. D, E and F

<em>D.</em> Due to income tax purpose, employees' wages will be withhold for a specific time, it is a current liability.

<em>E(1,2).</em> Since the notes payable will be matured in 2020, it is a long-term liability.  (as operating cycle is more than one year, it is a long-term liability. Whatever assets are used, they are long-term liabilities.

<em>F.</em> Accounts receivable is a current asset account. Therefore, if the balance is credit due to returns, it will not change the account.

Req. G, H and I

G. Since the bonds payable is matured at the end of this period, the entire amount will be current liability.

H. Bank Overdraft is a current liability account whatever the scenario pretends.

I. Since customers paid and goods have not been provided to them, it is a liability for the company. As it is related to products, it is a current liability.

6 0
4 years ago
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