1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
bekas [8.4K]
2 years ago
9

How did genocide in Bosnia differ from genocide in Rwanda?

History
1 answer:
Nady [450]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The good choice is:

A. NATO countries intervened in Bosnia to reach a peace agreement,

but the global community failed to respond to genocide in

Rwanda.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
What nations dominated the atlantic slave trade?
weqwewe [10]
It's a leading question, as cross-Atlantic trips carrying slaves would be European of all kinds. Though vikings usually enslaved people from the Baltic area but had slaves (thralls, in Danish; "trælle") from just about everywhere.
The Dutch and Belgians were far nastier than most nords, as at some point the Spanish and the Germans. Not to mention the old empire of the queen.
3 0
3 years ago
What happens when three-fourths of the states ratify an amendment?
saul85 [17]

The amendment becomes part of the Constitution when it has been ratified by three-fourths (currently 38) of the states. This process has been used for ratification of every amendment to the Constitution thus far. Article V also provides for an alternative process, which has never been utilized.

3 0
2 years ago
Which norse god’s image is santa claus partially based on?
S_A_V [24]
Odin's Horse

Odin was a chief figure in Norse mythology and one of the bases of the Santa Claus myth, partially thanks to his eight-legged horse, Sleipner, who may have inspired Santa's eight reindeer.

(Please mark brainliest)
3 0
2 years ago
Who was the United States commander of the Pacific forces? Truman MacArthur Eisenhower Churchill
irinina [24]

Answer:

<h2>MacArthur <====================8</h2>

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why were more Americans able to buy homes after World War II?
borishaifa [10]
More Americans were able to buy homes after the WWII because of the purchasing power of the American Dollar. In order for the country to experience a drastic economic change, it had to change its policies about taxes, cost of living, and personal wages of its people. So during that time period, people had a lot of money and decided to change their old ways of living in the city and moving into the suburbs to buy a lot and build their own houses there. They found that life was more peaceful and quaint as compared to the city life that's why there was a boom in suburban life after the WW.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • The right to petition members of the government is contained in the _______ Amendment to the Constitution. A. First B. Third C.
    11·1 answer
  • What’s the difference between unitary, confederate, and federal government?
    10·1 answer
  • When was the Mona Lisa painted?
    12·1 answer
  • Why did bishops meet I. Councils
    8·1 answer
  • How did the American colonies gain the support of Spain during the American Revolution?
    12·2 answers
  • Who favored a loose interpretation of the consitution?<br> O Federalists<br> Democratic Republican
    10·1 answer
  • The Oklahoma state soll is<br> soll. The state rock is<br> Reset<br> Next
    14·2 answers
  • How did American foods become staple crops in Africa, Asia, and Europe?
    11·1 answer
  • Can someone please help me answer this Missing Dollar Riddle for my economics class? 3 men share a motel room at $30 a night. th
    7·1 answer
  • I need help
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!