Answer:
5
Explanation:
The formula to compute the interest coverage ratio is shown below:
= (Earning before tax + interest expense) ÷ (interest expense)
where,
Earning before tax equal to
= Net income ÷ (1 - tax rate)
= $120 ÷ (1 - 0.40)
= $200
And interest expense is $50
So, the interest coverage ratio equal to
= ($200 + $50) ÷ ($50)
= 5
Based on the information given, it can be deduced that Trade Winds Corp. has a closed shop arrangement.
A closed shop arrangement simply means a place of work where all the employees gave to belong to an agreed trade union.
Under this condition, an employer will only employ the people that are to be part of the trade union. Therefore, it can be seen that Trade Winds Corp. has a closed shop arrangement.
Learn more about trade union on:
brainly.com/question/366179
Answer:
$26,000 adverse variance
Explanation:
Fixed Overheads Volume Variance = Budgeted Overheads at Actual Output - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= $1.30 x 60,000 hours - $1.30 x 80,000
= $78,000 - $104,000
= $26,000 adverse variance
The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $26,000 adverse variance
please do you mean 1 unit for safety stock or 100 units, will solve for both
Answer:when safety stock =1, Reorder point= 601 units
when safety stock =100, Reorder point= 700 units
Explanation:
Reorder Point (ROP), also called reorder level, is the point of inventoryset by a busness in which it replenishes its stock of items.
given:
Average demand= 200
lead time = 3
when safety stock =1
Reorder point= (Average demand X Delivery lead time ) + Safety stock
= (200 x 3 ) +1 = 601 units
when safety stock = 100
Reorder point= (Average demand X Delivery lead time ) + Safety stock
= (200 x 3 ) +100 = 700 units
Answer:
yesss but i graduated in 2017
