. Which one of the following businesses would be the most difficult to get funding for?

Your firm (an Australian firm) makes a sale to a Japanese customer. The sale price is 200 million Japanese Yen payable in exact

charle [14.2K]

Answer:

An Australian Firm Selling to a Japanese Customer

a) Direct Quote of the Exchange Rate between Australian Dollar and Japanese Yen:

A$ 1 = ¥90

Meaning 1 Australian Dollar = 90 Japanese Yen.

Therefore, the price of the goods would be A$ 2,222,222.22222 (¥200 million)/ ¥90

b)Theoretical Current Forward Exchange Rate, quoted in terms of JPY/AUD for delivery in three months:

= Spot Rate x (1 + Japanese Interest Rate) / (1 + Australian Interest Rate) x 360/90

= ¥90 x (1 +0.005) / (1 +0.03) x 360/90 = ¥90 x 1.005/1.03 x 360/90

= ¥351.26214 =A$1

c) The Australian firm can take advantage of any decreases in the exchange rate and also ensure that it receives at least Australian $2 million by entering into a Currency Forwards Contract.

d) If the spot exchange rate in 3 month's time is:

(i) AUD/JPY=150, the outcome of the hedging with a Currency Forwards Contract to get at least A$ 2 million would be the gain of:

Forward Exchange outcome in Australian Dollars = ¥200 million/ ¥150 =

A$ 1,333,333.33333

Hedging outcome minus Forward Exchange outcome

A$2 million - A$ 1,333,333.33333 = A$666,666.66667

(ii) AUD/JPY = 50, the outcome of the hedging with a Currency Forwards Contract to get at least A$ 2 million would be the loss of:

Forward Exchange outcome = in Australian Dollars = ¥200 million/ ¥50 =

A$4 million

Hedging outcome minus Forward Exchange outcome

A$2 million - $4 million = -A$2million

Explanation:

a) Currency forwards contracts and future contracts are used to hedge the currency risk. For example, a company expecting to receive ¥200 million in 90 days, can enter into a forward contract to deliver the ¥200 million and receive equivalent Australian dollars in 90 days at an exchange rate specified today.

b) If A$ 1 = ¥90

Therefore, the price of the goods would be A$ 2,222,222.22222 (¥200 million)/ ¥90 in Australian Dollars.

5 0

3 years ago

· Hope's contribution to her RETIREMENT plan...

Verizon [17]

Based on Hope's check, her contribution to her RETIREMENT plan b. is pre-tax and therefore not included in federal income taxes.

<h3>What does the check say?</h3>

The check notes that Hope's retirement contribution is not included in her federal taxable income.

This means that the contribution is paid pre-tax and will not be liable for federal income taxes. She will most probably pay taxes on the retirement fund when she withdraws from it.

Find out more on retirement contributions at brainly.com/question/6806179.

3 0

2 years ago

A withdrawal of cash from a bank that does not put the bank's reserves below the level of required reserves will ______.

Svetach [21]

If there is a withdrawal of cash from a bank which does not go below the required reserves, the withdrawal will not change money supply but will reduce bank checkable deposits.

<h3>What does withdrawing from a bank do?</h3>

If one withdraws money from a bank, it will reduce the bank's checkable deposits as these are made of cash that was deposited by entities.

As regards total money supply however, these withdrawals will only have an impact if the withdrawal causes bank reserves to fall below the required reserves.

Find out more on required reserves at brainly.com/question/10684321.

4 0

2 years ago

Babcock Company purchased a piece of machinery for $36,000 on January 1, 2019, and has been depreciating the machine using the s

pogonyaev

Answer:

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings Account $9,600

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

Explanation:

Year Remaining Life of machine Depreciation fraction

1 5 5/15

2 4 4/15

3 3 3/15

4 2 2/15

5 <u> 1 </u> 1/15

Total 15

Now here, the depreciation formula is as under:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) * Fraction value

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 5/15 = $12,000

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 4/15 = $9,600

Now in this year the there is change in estimate and a switch in the use of the depreciation method, which is now straight line method. The change in estimate only includes the useful life of the asset which is 6 years from the date of purchase.

So for straight-line depreciation:

Depreciation Expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) / Useful Life

By simply putting values, we have:

Depreciation Expense = $36,000 / 6 years = $6,000 per year

So this means, according to change in accounting policy, the excess depreciation charged must be eliminated from the previous years. The depreciation charge for the previous 2 years must be $12,000 and the excess depreciation charge is calculated as under:

Carrying value of the asset = $21,600 - $12,000 = $9,600

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

The double entry according to the US GAAP, for the excess depreciation charge in the previous years would be the waiving off of retained earnings with the excess depreciation amount calculated above.

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings Account $9,600

<u></u>

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

The depreciation expense for the year 2021, would be recorded as under:

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose you own an apartment and the government sets a price control on the monthly amount you can charge a person to live there

k0ka [10]

The answer is Rent Control.

4 0

3 years ago

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