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marusya05 [52]
3 years ago
8

У

Mathematics
1 answer:
Talja [164]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

hey I'm sorry did you ever get the answer yo this question

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I need the answer to this asap​
givi [52]

y - -10 = - (x - 3)

y + 10 = -x + 3

y = -x - 3

When put in point slope form, the equation is written as y minus negative 10 equals x minus 3 times -1 (y - - 10 = - (x - 3). The y minus negative 10 changes to y plus 10 (y + 10) and you distribute the right side by multiplying by negative one (-1 or simply just "-"). Then you subtract 10 from both sides, leaving us with the answer y = -x - 3.

Hope that made sense and helped.

7 0
4 years ago
6.324 whats the nearest tenth
xz_007 [3.2K]
6.3 should be the correct answer.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the Integral Test to determine whether the series is convergent or divergent
Inga [223]

Answer:

A. \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{e^{15n}} converges by integral test

Step-by-step explanation:

A. At first we need to verify that the function which the series is related (\frac{n}{e^{15n}}) fills the necessary conditions to ensure that the test is effective.

*f(x) must be continuous or differentiable

*f(x) must be positive and decreasing

Let´s verify that f(x)=\frac{n}{e^{15n}} fills these conditions:

*Considering that eˣ≠0 for all x, the function f(x)=\frac{n}{e^{15n}} does not have any discontinuities, so it´s continuous

*Because eˣ is increasing:

      if a<b ,then eᵃ<eᵇ

      if 0<eᵃ<eᵇ ,then 1/eᵃ > 1/eᵇ

      if 1/eᵃ > 1/eᵇ and a<b, then a/eᵃ<b/eᵇ

  We conclude that f(x)=\frac{n}{e^{15n}} is decreasing

*Because eˣ is always positive and the sum is going from 1 to ∞, this show that f(x)=\frac{n}{e^{15n}} is positive in [1,∞).

Now we are able to use the integral test in f(x)=\frac{n}{e^{15n}} as follows:

\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{e^{15n}}\ converges\ \leftrightarrow\ \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{x}{e^{15x}}\ dx\ converges

Let´s proceed to integrate f(x) using integration by parts

\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{x}{e^{15x}}\ dx=\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx

Choose your U and dV like this:

U=x\ \rightarrow dU=1\\ dV=e^{-15x}\ \rightarrow V=\frac{-e^{-15x}}{15}

And continue using the formula for integration by parts:

\int_{1}^{\infty}Udv = UV|_{1}^{\infty} - \int_{1}^{\infty}Vdu

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= \frac{-x}{15e^{15x}}|_{1}^{\infty} -\frac{-1}{15} \int_{1}^{\infty}e^{-15x}\ dx

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= \frac{-x}{15e^{15x}}|_{1}^{\infty} -\frac{-1}{15}(\frac{-1}{15e^{15x}})|_{1}^{\infty}

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= \frac{-x}{15e^{15x}}|_{1}^{\infty} -\frac{1}{225e^{15x}}|_{1}^{\infty}

Because we are dealing with ∞, we´d rewrite it as a limit that will help us at the end of the integral:

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= \lim_{b \to{\infty}}(\frac{-x}{15e^{15x}}|_{1}^{b}-\frac{1}{225e^{15x}}|_{1}^{b})

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= \lim_{b \to{\infty}} \frac{-b}{15e^{15b}}-\frac{1}{225e^{15b}}-(\frac{-1}{15e^{15}}-\frac{1}{225e^{15}})

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= ( \lim_{b \to{\infty}} \frac{-b}{15e^{15b}}-\frac{1}{225e^{15b}})+\frac{1}{15e^{15}}(1-\frac{1}{15})

We only have left to solve the limits, but because b goes to  ∞ and it is in an exponential function on the denominator everything goes to 0

\lim_{b \to{\infty}} \frac{-b}{15e^{15b}}-\frac{1}{225e^{15b}} = 0

\int_{1}^{\infty}xe^{-15x}\ dx= \frac{1}{15e^{15}}(1-\frac{1}{15})

Showing that the integral converges, it´s the same as showing that the series converges.

By the integral test \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{e^{15n}} converges

7 0
3 years ago
A large consumer goods company ran a television advertisement for one of its soap products.
zaharov [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a large consumer goods company ran a television advertisement for one of its soap products.

B = individual purchased the product S = individual recalls seeing the advertisement B∩S = individual purchased the product and recalls seeing the advertisement

The probabilities assigned were P(B)=.20,P(S)=.40, and P(B∩S)=.12

a) P(B/S) = \frac{P(B\bigcap S}{P(S)} \\=\frac{0.12}{0.40} \\=0.30

Yes we can continue the advt since P(B/A) >P(B)

b)

It is preferable to continue advt as chances of purchase after seeing advt is more than purchase without seeing advt.

c) P(B/S) =\frac{P(B\bigcap S}{P(S)} \\=\frac{0.1}{0.3} \\=0.3333

The II advt has the bigger effect since conditional prob is more here.

7 0
4 years ago
The percent discout is 30% and the sale price is 42% what is the original price
statuscvo [17]

Answer: 54.6

Step-by-step explanation: 42 x 30% = 12.6 ( tax ) then 12.6 + 42 = 54.6

5 0
3 years ago
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