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eimsori [14]
3 years ago
14

Suppose that the federal budget deficit increases. the increase in government borrowing will cause interest rates to ▼ rise fall

. in an open​ economy, this will make u.s. bonds ▼ more attractive less attractive to overseas​ residents, who will buy ▼ more less bonds and ▼ less more u.s.​ exports, and thus the trade deficit will ▼ rise fall .
Business
1 answer:
yan [13]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Rise; More attractive; More; Less; Rise

Explanation:

Suppose that the federal budget deficit increases.

So, there is a need to borrow funds and this will increase the government borrowings. The higher government borrowings will lead to cause the interest rate to rise.

In an open economy, the buyers in the foreign countries are buying more U.S bonds as they will receive higher rate of return from investing in bonds. Hence, the U.S bonds are becoming more attractive to the foreign buyers because of the higher interest rate.

This will reduce the value of U.S exports, hence, the trade deficit (Value of imports - Value of exports) will rise further.

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If a company uses the balance sheet approach to estimate bad debt expense, bad debt expense for a period can be determined by: M
arlik [135]

Answer: d. Taking the difference between the unadjusted balance in the allowance account and the desired balance of the allowance account.

Explanation: Bad debt expense is an unfortunate cost of doing business with customers on credit and recognizing bad debts leads to an offsetting reduction to accounts receivable on the balance sheet.

The balance-sheet approach for estimating bad debts expresses uncollectible accounts as a percentage of accounts receivable. That is, it takes the difference between the current balance of allowance for doubtful accounts and the amount calculated.

Therefore, if a company uses the balance sheet approach to estimate bad debt expense, bad debt expense for a period can be determined by taking the difference between the unadjusted balance in the allowance account and the desired balance of the allowance account.

8 0
3 years ago
The loan review department at a major regional bank has an exceptionally high turnover of both administrative assistants and ana
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

Letter B is correct. <em>Organizational.</em>

Explanation:

Employee turnover is measured by an index that checks employee entry and exit rates in an organization. When the turnover rate is high it means that an organizational analysis should be performed to detect the possible causes of increased employee turnover.

It can be caused by situations related to organizational structure, such as failures in the selection process, unfavorable organizational climate that causes conflicts and demotivation, low benefits and compensation among others.

8 0
3 years ago
Peter owns 100 shares of a company. He receives a fixed rate of dividend from these shares. Which type of share has Peter purcha
xenn [34]

Answer:

B.  preference shares

Explanation:

Option A is wrong because equity shares provide a different rate of dividends to a shareholder. Equity shares are known as ordinary shares. Therefore, option C is wrong.

There are no priority shares in the components of stockholders' equity. Hence option D is wrong.

Investment security​ does not give any dividends. So option E is wrong.

Option B is correct because preference shares give a fixed rate of dividend.

4 0
4 years ago
Which of the following resources is most helpful to learn more about careers?
ASHA 777 [7]

A. The Occupational Outlook Handbook


4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A Firm needs to replace most of its machinery in five years at a cost of $500,000. The company wishes to create a sinking fund t
DaniilM [7]

Answer:

The quarterly deposit required is $ 20,578.36

Explanation:

in order to determine the needed quarterly deposit, we make use of pmt formula in excel, which is given as :

=-pmt(rate,nper,-pv,fv)

rate is the rate of return on the deposit at 8% per year but 2% per quarter(8%/4)

nper is number of deposits required in the fund,which number of years ,5 multiplied by 4(4 deposits per year)

pv is the present of the value of the future amount which is zero as it is not required.

Fv is the amount expected in 5 years which is $500,000

=-pmt(2%,20,0,500000)

pmt= $20,578.36

6 0
3 years ago
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