Answer: d. Taking the difference between the unadjusted balance in the allowance account and the desired balance of the allowance account.
Explanation: Bad debt expense is an unfortunate cost of doing business with customers on credit and recognizing bad debts leads to an offsetting reduction to accounts receivable on the balance sheet.
The balance-sheet approach for estimating bad debts expresses uncollectible accounts as a percentage of accounts receivable. That is, it takes the difference between the current balance of allowance for doubtful accounts and the amount calculated.
Therefore, if a company uses the balance sheet approach to estimate bad debt expense, bad debt expense for a period can be determined by taking the difference between the unadjusted balance in the allowance account and the desired balance of the allowance account.
Answer:
Letter B is correct. <em>Organizational.</em>
Explanation:
Employee turnover is measured by an index that checks employee entry and exit rates in an organization. When the turnover rate is high it means that an organizational analysis should be performed to detect the possible causes of increased employee turnover.
It can be caused by situations related to organizational structure, such as failures in the selection process, unfavorable organizational climate that causes conflicts and demotivation, low benefits and compensation among others.
Answer:
B. preference shares
Explanation:
Option A is wrong because equity shares provide a different rate of dividends to a shareholder. Equity shares are known as ordinary shares. Therefore, option C is wrong.
There are no priority shares in the components of stockholders' equity. Hence option D is wrong.
Investment security does not give any dividends. So option E is wrong.
Option B is correct because preference shares give a fixed rate of dividend.
A. The Occupational Outlook Handbook
Answer:
The quarterly deposit required is $ 20,578.36
Explanation:
in order to determine the needed quarterly deposit, we make use of pmt formula in excel, which is given as :
=-pmt(rate,nper,-pv,fv)
rate is the rate of return on the deposit at 8% per year but 2% per quarter(8%/4)
nper is number of deposits required in the fund,which number of years ,5 multiplied by 4(4 deposits per year)
pv is the present of the value of the future amount which is zero as it is not required.
Fv is the amount expected in 5 years which is $500,000
=-pmt(2%,20,0,500000)
pmt= $20,578.36