1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
irinina [24]
3 years ago
8

Regarding the Magna Carta, which statement is false? A. The document required trial by a jury of one's peers. B. The meeting of

the English Barons and King John occurred at Runnymede. C. The document assured all English citizens freedom of speech. D. King John was forced to sign the document..
History
1 answer:
lilavasa [31]3 years ago
4 0
<span>C. The document assured all English citizens freedom of speech.</span>
You might be interested in
If executive order 9066 was unconstitutional, why was it allowed to stand?
Marysya12 [62]
Do you have the answers for unit 14 lesson 2 world history semester exam
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why did Alvar Nunez de Vaca explore?
ASHA 777 [7]
<span>Alvar Nunez Cabeza de Vaca was a Spanish explorer who sailed to North America from Spain, leaving in 1527. ... Narvaez did not survive. ... He explored along the Paraguay River</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Where is roanoke island located
stepladder [879]
It is located in North Carolina
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why did Lech Walesa win a Nobel Peace Prize in 1983?
Vladimir79 [104]

<em><u>Answer:</u></em>

In 1983 Lech Walesa, the pioneer of Solidarity and Poland's first autonomous worker's guild, was granted the Nobel Peace Prize for his crusade for freedom of association.  

Lech Walesa's actions have been described by an assurance to tackle his nation's issues through arrangement and participation without the use of violence. He has endeavored to build up a discourse between the association he speaks to Solidarity and the authorities.

4 0
3 years ago
Why was the tea-opium connection important?
Talja [164]

Answer:

The tea-opium connection led to the Opium War.

Explanation:

The tea-opium connection refers to the commercial relationship between the Europeans and the Chinese during the 18th century. China used to be self-sufficient, meaning that, since they had more exports than imports,  they had no need to establish new trade relationships with Europe. However, Britain was interested in importing Chinese tea. By smuggling opium into China, Britain managed to get the Chinese people addicted to it and therefore created a demand for a British good in that country.

The tea-opium connection was clearly beneficial for the Europeans and not to the Chinese, and the British refusal to smuggle opium into China led to the Opium War.

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Which is not a power of the president?
    5·1 answer
  • According to the map, during Wolrd War II, which of the following Texas cities did NOT have petroleum-related industry?
    11·2 answers
  • 100 POINTS
    10·2 answers
  • Which answer is NOT a problem faced by multi-ethnic countries in Africa after independence?
    8·1 answer
  • Do you believe Hitler's loss of the only people he loved created the excuse for his hatred of humanity?
    5·1 answer
  • Was President Roosevelt justified in ordering Executive Order 9066, which resulted in the internment of Japanese American citize
    6·1 answer
  • how did epidemics among the native american populations contribute to an increase in the trade of enslaved africans
    9·1 answer
  • 24. The Second Continental Congress chose Thomas Jefferson to command the
    11·2 answers
  • Summarize the main ideas of Marx and from Adam smith
    9·1 answer
  • The compromises over slavery as a political issue included Wilmot Privoso and The
    15·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!