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Gemiola [76]
4 years ago
6

Q 2.29: Val-Tek has current assets of $1,700,000 and current liabilities of $900,000. If they pay $100,000 owed to a creditor, w

hat will their new current ratio be?
Business
2 answers:
irina1246 [14]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:2 : 1

Explanation:

current ratio = current asset/current liability

If current liability was $900,000 less $100,000= $800,000

Therefore the current ratio=

$1,700,000/$800,000 =

2 : 1

KengaRu [80]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: The new current ratio is 2.125.

Explanation: The current ratio is expressed as current assets divided by current liabilities. If the company pays $100,000 due to creditors, it means the current liabilities would reduce to $800,000 ($900,000 minus $100,000). Therefore, the new current ratio will be $1,700,000 divided by $800,000 to give 2.125.

The ratio is one of the types of liquidity ratios. It is usually used to know by what extent the company can maximize the use of its current assets to settle obligations falling due within a year.

The result therefore means the company has twice the buffer to settle its obligations falling due within a year, even after paying $100,000 to its creditors.

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Cusic Music Company is considering the sale of a new sound board used in recording studios. The new board would sell for $26,400
Sav [38]

Answer:

The correct answer is = $64,409,960

However, if we assume there are no Differed Tax, the answer will be

$47,371, 400

Explanation:

OCF stands for Operating Cash Flow.

The basic formula for Operation Cash Flow is =

Net Income + Non-Cash Expenses - Increase in working capital

Net Income:

Old Boards = 1,520 x 24,900 = $37,848,000

New Boards = 1500 x 26,400 = $39,600,000

Total Income = $77,448,000

Non-Cash Expenses:

Depreciation = 1.875 million + 2.9 million = $4,775,000

(Assumption) Differed income tax = 22% of Sales  = $17,038,560

Total Non-Cash Expense = $21,813,560

Increase in working Capital:

45% of Sales

i.e. $34,851,600

Hence:

77,448,000 + 21,81 3,560- 34,851,600

= $64,409,960

3 0
4 years ago
QUESTION 01 (10 points) ‐ Coefficient of Variation (CV) We need to compare volatility of multiple assets. As the assets have dif
barxatty [35]

Answer:

a, Coefficient of variation

   = <u>Standard deviation</u> x 100

          Mean

b, Coefficient of variation

  Asset A

   Coefficient of variation

   = <u>$23.48</u>   x 100

      $181.92

  = 12.91%

   Asset B

  Coefficient of variation

  = <u>$0.09</u> x 100

     $0.38

 = 23.68%

  Asset C

   Coefficient of variation

  = <u>$27.31 </u>  x 100

     $247.19

  = 11.05%

Asset C is least volatile while Asset B is most volatile

Explanation:

Coefficient of variation is the ratio of standard deviation to mean (expected return) multiplied by 100. It is used to measure the volatility of assets. Asset  C has the least coefficient of variation, thus, it is the least volatile. Asset B has the highest coefficient of variation, which implies that it is the most volatile.

4 0
4 years ago
Which of the following scenarios demonstrates the leverage effect on net operating income due to the existence of fixed costs?
morpeh [17]

Answer:

C) A 25% increase in sales resulting in a 30% increase in net operating income.

7 0
3 years ago
1. A U.S. company has a subsidiary in Mexico. If the company's statement of comprehensive income reports a gain for conversion o
malfutka [58]

Answer:

Option A is Correct "The peso has strengthened against the U.S. dollar and the subsidiary's functional currency is the peso".

Explanation:

The U.S. organization has an auxiliary in Mexico shows that U.S. organization is parent organization whose revealing cash is U.S. dollar and money of Maxico (for example nation of backup's organization) is peso. The parent organization solidify the budget reports of its backups and convert the fiscal reports of auxiliaries which are in outside cash to residential nation's money. Right now US organization's salary explanation reports a misfortune for change of backup records to U.S. dollars. On change when the estimation of U.S. dollars gets down against the peso, at that point misfortune on change is accounted for. In this way, the misfortune has happened because of debilitating of the US dollar against the peso that implies the peso has fortified against the U.S. dollar and the auxiliary's practical cash is the peso.

6 0
4 years ago
What is a DBA name and why does a company need one
tiny-mole [99]

Sometimes it makes sense for a company to do business under a different name. To do this, the company has to file what's know as a DBA, meaning "doing business as." A DBA is also known as a "fictitious business name," "trade name," or "assumed name."

3 0
4 years ago
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