Answer:
C $ 596.39
total payment 7,156.68
Interest expense 2,156.68
Explanation:
6,000 - 1,000 = 5,000 amount to finance
We will calcualte the cuota of an annuity of 6 years with semianual payment at 12% annual rate.
PV $5,000.00
time 12 (6 years times 2 payment per year)
rate 0.06 (12% annual we divide by 2 to get semiannual)
C $ 596.39
The total amount paid will be the cuota times the time of the loan:
Total amount paid
596.39 x 12 = 7,156.68
The interest will be the difference between the total amount paid and the principal of the loan
Interest paid
total payment 7,156.68
principal (5,000)
Interest expense 2,156.68
From the given description, Chip is using an experimental design called (A) matching.
Matching <u>is a type of experimental design where the researcher divide his or her samples into two groups of treatment conditions, which serves to ensure that before the treatment, both groups have the samples with the same characteristics, thus ensuring that the results of the experiment would not be influenced by any confounding variables that the samples have.</u>
Chip is doing this to ensure that samples that have been influenced by other variables which determine their decision to hire are distributed evenly in both the experimental and control group.
Answer:
- 5,000 watches : $150,000 loss
- 20,000 watches: $60,000 (Loss)
- Break-even point = 30,000 units
- if the selling price rises to 32 = break even points descends to 10,588 units
- If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26 , the break even point goes back to 30,000units.
Explanation:
Hi, to answer this question we have to apply the next formula:
Profit = Revenue -cost
Where the revenue is equal to the units sold (x) multiplied by the selling price,
R = 21 x
And cost is equal to the sum of the fixed and variable costs.
C = 15x + 1800
So:
P = 21x-(15x +180,000)
P = x ( 21-15)- 180,000
P = 5000(21-15)-180,000
P = 5000(6) -180,000
P= 30,000-180,000
P=-$150,000 (loss , since is negative )
P = 20,000(6) -180,000
P = 120,000-180,000
P=-$60,000 (Loss)
- To find the break even point:
R = C
21x = 15x + 180,000
21x-15x =180,000
6 x = 180,000
x = 180,000/6
x =30,000 units
- if the selling price rises to 32
32x = 15x + 180,000
32x-15x = 180,000
17x =180,000
x = 180,000/17
x = 10,588 units
It descends,
- If the selling price rises to $32 but variable costs rises to $26
32x = 26x+180,000
32x-26x = 180,000
6x = 180,000
x = 180,000/6
x =30,000
The break-even point comes back to 30,000 units.
Answer:
100,000 units
Explanation:
The computation of the transferred out units of the process is shown below:
= Transferred units × percentage of completion + ending work in process inventory units × percentage of completion
= 90,000 units × 100% + 10,000 units × 100%
= 90,000 units + 10,000 units
= 100,000 units
All other information which is given is not considered. Hence, ignored it
Changes in property, plant, and equipment related to the investing activities on the statement of cash flows.
The cash flow statement reveals how much money is made or spent on operating, investing, and financing activities during a certain time period, bridging the gap between the income statement and the balance sheet.
The cash generated or spent in relation to investment activities is shown in the cash flow from investing activities portion of the cash flow statement.
Buying tangible assets, investing in securities, or selling securities or assets are all examples of investing activity.
If management is investing in the long-term health of the company, negative cash flow from investing operations could not be a bad indicator.
Hence, Changes in property, plant, and equipment related to the investing activities on the statement of cash flows.
Learn more about Cash flow statement:
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