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2 years ago

Let f(x) = n^2 - 1, where n is an integer and n >= 1. Is f(x) always divisible

Mathematics

1 answer:

lapo4ka [179]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

(Assume x is not 1.)

$\frac{x^n-1}{x-1}$ is always divisible for integers greater than 1.

Let's use synthetic division:

1 | 1x^n + 0x^(n-1) +0x^(n-2) + ....+0x^3+0x^2+0x -1

| 1 1 1 1 1 1

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 1 1 1 1 1 0

We see the remainder is 0 which means that $(x-1)$ divides $(x^n-1)$ .

The quotient is $x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}+x^{n-3}+\cdots+x^2+x+1$ .

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Binomial Expansion/Pascal's triangle. Please help with all of number 5.

Mandarinka [93]

$\begin{matrix}1\\1&1\\1&2&1\\1&3&3&1\\1&4&6&4&1\end{bmatrix}$

The rows add up to $1,2,4,8,16$ , respectively. (Notice they're all powers of 2)

The sum of the numbers in row $n$ is $2^{n-1}$ .

The last problem can be solved with the binomial theorem, but I'll assume you don't take that for granted. You can prove this claim by induction. When $n=1$ ,

$(1+x)^1=1+x=\dbinom10+\dbinom11x$

so the base case holds. Assume the claim holds for $n=k$ , so that

$(1+x)^k=\dbinom k0+\dbinom k1x+\cdots+\dbinom k{k-1}x^{k-1}+\dbinom kkx^k$

Use this to show that it holds for $n=k+1$ .

$(1+x)^{k+1}=(1+x)(1+x)^k$
$(1+x)^{k+1}=(1+x)\left(\dbinom k0+\dbinom k1x+\cdots+\dbinom k{k-1}x^{k-1}+\dbinom kkx^k\right)$
$(1+x)^{k+1}=1+\left(\dbinom k0+\dbinom k1\right)x+\left(\dbinom k1+\dbinom k2\right)x^2+\cdots+\left(\dbinom k{k-2}+\dbinom k{k-1}\right)x^{k-1}+\left(\dbinom k{k-1}+\dbinom kk\right)x^k+x^{k+1}$

Notice that

$\dbinom k\ell+\dbinom k{\ell+1}=\dfrac{k!}{\ell!(k-\ell)!}+\dfrac{k!}{(\ell+1)!(k-\ell-1)!}$
$\dbinom k\ell+\dbinom k{\ell+1}=\dfrac{k!(\ell+1)}{(\ell+1)!(k-\ell)!}+\dfrac{k!(k-\ell)}{(\ell+1)!(k-\ell)!}$
$\dbinom k\ell+\dbinom k{\ell+1}=\dfrac{k!(\ell+1)+k!(k-\ell)}{(\ell+1)!(k-\ell)!}$
$\dbinom k\ell+\dbinom k{\ell+1}=\dfrac{k!(k+1)}{(\ell+1)!(k-\ell)!}$
$\dbinom k\ell+\dbinom k{\ell+1}=\dfrac{(k+1)!}{(\ell+1)!((k+1)-(\ell+1))!}$
$\dbinom k\ell+\dbinom k{\ell+1}=\dbinom{k+1}{\ell+1}$

So you can write the expansion for $n=k+1$ as

$(1+x)^{k+1}=1+\dbinom{k+1}1x+\dbinom{k+1}2x^2+\cdots+\dbinom{k+1}{k-1}x^{k-1}+\dbinom{k+1}kx^k+x^{k+1}$

and since $\dbinom{k+1}0=\dbinom{k+1}{k+1}=1$ , you have

$(1+x)^{k+1}=\dbinom{k+1}0+\dbinom{k+1}1x+\cdots+\dbinom{k+1}kx^k+\dbinom{k+1}{k+1}x^{k+1}$

and so the claim holds for $n=k+1$ , thus proving the claim overall that

$(1+x)^n=\dbinom n0+\dbinom n1x+\cdots+\dbinom n{n-1}x^{n-1}+\dbinom nnx^n$

Setting $x=1$ gives

$(1+1)^n=\dbinom n0+\dbinom n1+\cdots+\dbinom n{n-1}+\dbinom nn=2^n$

which agrees with the result obtained for part (c).

4 0

2 years ago

X²-2x=8<br> what is the answer

katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

X=4, -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Check attachment