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kvv77 [185]
3 years ago
15

Let f(x) = n^2 - 1, where n is an integer and n >= 1. Is f(x) always divisible

Mathematics
1 answer:
lapo4ka [179]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

(Assume x is not 1.)

\frac{x^n-1}{x-1} is always divisible for integers greater than 1.

Let's use synthetic division:

1  |   1x^n     + 0x^(n-1)    +0x^(n-2) + ....+0x^3+0x^2+0x -1

  |                  1                 1                      1         1        1     1

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------

      1              1                 1                      1         1         1      0

We see the remainder is 0 which means that (x-1) divides (x^n-1).

The quotient is x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}+x^{n-3}+\cdots+x^2+x+1.

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