Since f(x) is (strictly) increasing, we know that it is one-to-one and has an inverse f^(-1)(x). Then we can apply the inverse function theorem. Suppose f(a) = b and a = f^(-1)(b). By definition of inverse function, we have
f^(-1)(f(x)) = x
Differentiating with the chain rule gives
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) f'(x) = 1
so that
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
Let x = a; then
(f^(-1))'(f(a)) = 1/f'(a)
(f^(-1))'(b) = 1/f'(a)
In particular, we take a = 2 and b = 7; then
(f^(-1))'(7) = 1/f'(2) = 1/5
Answer:
A.Yes.1st group is nothing ,the 2nd group is nothing,and so on .The 4th group is which does not equal 256 is the correct answer
Answer:
Im a soccer goalie too
Step-by-step explanation: 21/25, 0.84, 84%
First you would add the two angles together to get 105. The. you do 180-105 to get 75. That is the missing angle. From there you would correspond the angles with the sides. Therefore the answer is Angle AB, angle BC, angle CA. these are in order from shortest to longest
Answer:
0.46
Step-by-step explanation:
