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Nataly [62]
3 years ago
10

In a growing number of cities, stores are required either not to make available plastic or paper bags or to do so only for an ad

ditional fee. if this fee can be refunded when someone recycles the bag, the refund acts as a(n) ________ incentive.
Business
1 answer:
kirill [66]3 years ago
8 0

The answer to the question is (A) a direct incentive.

A direct incentive refers to <em>a type of incentive that is given in order to cause an action to occur. </em>

A direct incentive is generally tangible to the person who is targeted by it. In contrast, its opposite, an indirect incentive refers to a type of incentive that a person receives indirectly by choosing to do something. It is usually less tangible than a direct incentive.

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What type of example is this curve known for?
vivado [14]

Answer:

smith i think

Explanation:

3 0
4 years ago
What is the minimum completion cost of this project if there is a penalty of $1000 for each day the project lasts longer than 27
Nitella [24]

Answer:

$27,000

Explanation:

Assuming the minimum cost per day is the same as the penalty for each day the project lasts longer than 27days which is $1,000

Mininum completion cost = 27 × $1,000 = $27,000

4 0
4 years ago
Mattel, Inc. had to recall 19 million toys because it learned that its manufacturer/supplier in China had used lead-based paint
olga55 [171]

Answer:

a. is liable to purchasers as a manufacturer/seller of toys.

Explanation:

Mattel is the producer of the toys even if it was it's manufacturer in China that made the toys. Using lead paint can lead to poisoning of children. So the toys produced can be considered to be harmful and defective.

The manufacturer of a product has a product liability on every good delivered to the consumer. Product liability is that borne by the manufacturer of a good for putting defective product in the hand of the consumer.

So for any damage or health issues that come up as a result of use of the toys, Mattel is liable.

5 0
4 years ago
You are attempting to value a call option with an exercise price of $109 and one year to expiration. The underlying stock pays n
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

The value of the call option today is $14.29

Explanation:

The two-state stock pricing model is one that prices are based on the assumption that there is no arbitrage profit opportunity as well as the fact that the call option's value will be the present value(PV) of the expected future winnings for long call.

Now, value of the call option if the prices go up will be;

142 - 109 = $32

While if the prices go down, it will be;

76 - 109 = -$33

The call option in this case can only be utilized when the market value exceeds the exercise price.

Therefore, the expected winnings value after one year will be;

Value after one year = (32 × 0.5) + (0 × 0.5)

Value after one year = $16

We used 0 in the multiplication because the call wouldn't be utilized for when the prices go down.

one year from now the long call can be expected to earn $16 .

Thus, today the present value of this amount will be the price of the call option if we take into cognizance that here will be no arbitrage profit opportunity.

With risk-free rate of interest is 12%, we have;

PV = 16/1.12 = $14.29

3 0
3 years ago
Journalize the entries to record the following summarized operations related to production for a company using a job order cost
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

Raw Materials  176,000 debit

 Account Payable   176,000 credit

Factory Overehad 2,700 debit

WIP                     153,700 debit

      Raw Materials           156,400 credit

Factory Overehad 12,000 debit

WIP                        141,300 debit

      Wages Payable           153,300 credit

Factory Overhead 37,000 debit

 acc dep- equipment        37,000 credit

Factory Overhead 6,100 debit

        prepaid                 6,100 credit

Factory Overhead   76,000 debit

        account payable           76,000 credit

WIP                          105,300 debit

      Factory Overhead           105,300 credit

Finished Goods 415,300 debit

          WIP                        415,300 credit

Account receivables   638,000 debit

            Sales Revenue           638,000 credit

COGS                           412,000 debit

            Finished Goods          412,000 credit

Explanation:

Much of these are self-explanatory

<u>Notes:</u>

<u>The direct materials and labor applied to produciton orders go into WIP</u>

he applied overhead goes into WIP too.

Then, for <u>other manufacturing cost we post into the debit side of manufacturing overhead.</u> This way; we can later define the subapplication or overapplication of manufacturing overhead.

The finished goods are debited and WIP credited to represent the transfer to finished goods.

The finished good which are sold will be recognize as COGS

5 0
3 years ago
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