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brilliants [131]
4 years ago
8

If Carol's disposable income increases from $1,200 to $1,700 and her savings increases from $200 to $300, then: marginal propens

ity to save is three-fifths. marginal propensity to consume is one-half. marginal propensity to consume is four-fifths. marginal propensity to consume is one-fifths.
Business
1 answer:
Zepler [3.9K]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The Marginal Propsensity to Consume is four-fifths

Explanation:

To answer the question, an indirect approach must be used.

  1. First, we are given data on disposable income and Savings, it is, therefore, easy to assume that we are to calculate the Propensity to Save.
  • The Formula for calculating the Propensity to Save is:  Change in Savings /Change in Income.
  • MPS=ΔS/ΔY
  • Using the data we have:
  • Change in Savings: $300-$200= $100
  • Change in Income: $1,700-$1,200=$500
  • MPS= $100/$500= One-fifth
  • But hold on: One-fifths Marginal propensity to save is not part of the options, so we continue:
  • If Marginal Propensity to Save is One-Fifths, then based on a formula the Marginal Propensity to Consume is the balance of the Subtraction of One-Fifths from One:
  • 1-1/5= 4/5.
  • The Marginal Propensity to Consume is therefore four-fifths.

Note:

  • If the data given was increase in consumption instead of savings then we would have directly calculated Marginal Propensity to Consume= Change in Consumption/Change in Income or
  • MPC= ΔC/ΔY
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Answer:

For most high-income countries of the world, GDP <u>HAS INCREASED GRADUALLY</u> over time.

Explanation:

Both GDP and GDP per capita has increased for almost all high income countries. Actually the only country in the world that was once rich and had a very high GDP and GDP per capita that turned into a developing country (AKA poor country) is Argentina. It is a unique case in all the world, since Argentina had the highest GDP per capita for 2 years (1895 and 1896) and continued to have a relatively high GDP per capita more than 60 years. Then political turmoil and corruption resulting in it falling from number one spot to number 73.

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3 years ago
What does the phrase​ "internalizing an external​ cost" mean? A. prohibiting economic activities that create externalities B. fo
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Answer:

B. forcing producers to factor into their production​ costs , the cost of the externalities created in the production of their output

Explanation:

" internalizing an external​ cost " -  

It is the process of shifting the cost or the burden from negative externality like the pollution , to inside .

And this process is achieved via paying taxes , the government subsidies , tolls etc .

Hence , the correct explanation for " internalizing an external​ cost " is ( b ) .

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True or False: Living expenses aren't considered startup costs.
GuDViN [60]
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6 0
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Meger Manufacturing uses the direct labor cost method for applying factory overhead to production. The budgeted direct labor cos
kiruha [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is C.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The budgeted direct labor cost and factory overhead for the previous fiscal year were $1,000,000 and $800,000, respectively.

Job 352A

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Labor costs= $45,000

First, we need to calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 800,000/1,000,000= $0.8 per direct labor dollar

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3 years ago
During the mid-1980s, we observed a significant reduction in oil prices. In the United States, we would expect that this reducti
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Answer:

<h2>A reduction in the oil prices in United States would lead to a a larger reduction in the GDP deflator than the CPI.Hence,the correct answer in this case is option D) or a larger reduction in the GDP deflator compared to the CPI.</h2>

Explanation:

In Macroeconomics GDP deflator and Consumer Price Index(CPI) both indicates the fluctuations or variations in the overall price level of all the goods and services in the economy.However,CPI only includes the prices of goods and services that are finally consumed or purchased by the consumers or buyers in the economy and excludes the goods and services involved in any commercial,business to business or government exchange or transaction.On the other hand,GDP deflator estimates the price level of all the goods and services produced by the economy.Therefore,GDP deflator is a relatively comprehensive and broader price indicator in the economy compared to the CPI and is inclusive of all types of commercial transactions between all entities,unlike CPI.Now,in this context,oil is used both for final consumption by consumers or buyers as well as for commercial purposes or intermediate good by firms and companies for production of final goods and services.In many common instances,oil is heavily traded in the international market and is a major export commodity for most of the oil producing countries.Therefore,CPI,in this case,would only register the reduction in price of oil that has been used only for final consumption by the consumers or buyers in the economy.In contrast,GDP deflator will account for the overall reduction in price of oil that is produced by US in general which is used for all commercial,government or administrative and final consumption.Consequently, oil price reduction in US will cause a relatively higher reduction in its GDP deflator than the CPI.

5 0
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