Answer:
it a
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
150
Step-by-step explanation:
15*10
Lets get rid of the 0 for now
15*1
That is 15 added to itself 0 times so it is 15
Now lets put the 0 back
and we will get
150
The solution to the above factorization problem is given as f′(x)=4x³−3x²−10x−1. See steps below.
<h3>What are the steps to the above answer?</h3>
Step 1 - Take the derivative of both sides
f′(x)=d/dx(x^4−x^3−5x^2−x−6)
Step 2 - Use differentiation rule d/dx(f(x)±g(x))=d/dx(f(x))±d/dx(g(x))
f′(x)=d/dx(x4)−d/dx(x^3)−d/dx(5x^2)−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−d/dx(x3)−d/dx(5x^2)−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x2−d/dx(5x^2)−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x^2−10x−d/dx(x)−d/dx(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x^2−10x−1−dxd(6)
f′(x)=4x^3−3x^2−10x−1−0
Learn more about factorization:
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Answer:
2000 meters
Step-by-step explanation:
first you have to convert the meters into centimeters so then 1cm=100 cm
1/5 meter=20 cm
20*100=2000
2000 centimeters or 20 meters
hope this helps
brainliest?
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
as given in question that a > 0 so
if we put a=1
we get g(x) = f(x)
now put a =2
we get
g(x) = 2 f(x)
here we can see that g(x) would always be greater than or equals to f(x)
so we can say that the graph of g(x) will never be narrower than graph of g(x)