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atroni [7]
2 years ago
15

Best Deal 1

Mathematics
2 answers:
kipiarov [429]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: The answer would be D.

like she said down there !

!

Step-by-step explanation:

german2 years ago
4 0

d. $0.53 because..

3/5.25 = 1/1.75

5/9.75 = 1.95

7/12.60 = 1.80

10/14.20 = 1.42

12/18.24 = 1.52

then do ;

most expensive deal - least expensive deal = how much he’ll save

1.95 - 1.42 = .53

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Type the correct answer in the box
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

w=V/(lh)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

l------> the length of the base of the prism

w------> the width of the base of the prism

h------> the height of the prism

we know that

The volume of the prism is equal to

V=lwh

Solve for w

That means-------> isolate the variable w

so

Divide both sides by (lh)

V/(lh)=lwh/(lh)

Simplify

w=V/(lh)

7 0
3 years ago
Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

000.212

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
A triangle has an area of 56 square units it's height is 14 units
kobusy [5.1K]
The formula for the area of a triangle is 1/2*b*h=a.
1/2*b*14=56
b*14=112
b=8
7 0
3 years ago
Need help answering this math problem.
Fed [463]
The second bubble is the answer
4 0
3 years ago
A production process produces 2% defective parts. a sample of 5 parts from the production is selected. what is the probability t
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

Probability of a sample that contains exactly two defective parts is .0037 or .37%

Step-by-step explanation:

As we know if P is the probability of achieving k results in n trials then probability formula is P = \binom{n}{k}p^{K}q^{n-k}

In this formula n = number of trials

                        k = number of success

                        (n-k) = number of failures

                         p = probability of success in one trial

                         q = (1-p) = probability of failure in one trial

In this sum n = 5

                  k = 2

number failures (n-k) = (5-2) = 3

                            p = 2% which can be written as .02

                            q = 98% Which can be written as .98

Now putting these values in the formula

                        P = \binom{5}{2}(.02)^{2}(.98)^{5-2}

                        P = \binom{5}{2}(.02)^{2}(.98)^{3}

                   \binom{5}{2}= 5!/3!2!    

                                              = 5×4×3×2×1/3×2×1×2×1

                                              = 5×2 =10

                                       P = 10×(.02)²×(.98)³

                                          = .0037 or .37%

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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