Answer:
D. Kurt’s division is less risky than the other divisions.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most likely reason is that Kurt’s division is less risky than the other divisions. Just as the saying goes "the greater the risk, the greater the reward", the same goes for the opposite, the lower the risk that a division has to undertake the lower the percent for the required return.
Answer:
a-The present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-The total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Explanation:
a-
Let the function of the revenue earned is given as
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0The present value is given as [tex]PV=\int\limits^a_b {S(t)e^{-rt}} \, dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EThe%20present%20value%20is%20given%20as%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5Ea_b%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-rt%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt)
Here
- a and b are the limits of integral which are 0 and 1 respectively
- r is the rate of interest which is 5% or 0.05
- S(t) is the function of value which is
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0So the equation becomes[tex]PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t+38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=8113.7805+18764.4669+34207.6751\\PV=61085.9225](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fli%3E%3C%2Ful%3E%3Cp%3ESo%20the%20equation%20becomes%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_1%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%2B38000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2838000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D8113.7805%2B18764.4669%2B34207.6751%5C%5CPV%3D61085.9225)
So the present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-
The time in which the machine pays for itself is given as
The present value is set equal to the value of machine which is given as
$160,000 so the equation becomes:
So the total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Answer:
A production combination outside of the PPF is unattainable by the economy with the given resources and technology.
This represents the Concept of scarcity in economics.
If the economy wishes to achieve the production point outside the frontier, they will have to enhance the production possibility capacity by introducing new technology or finding new resources.
Explanation:
The term that describes the situation where <em>fixed and variable </em><em>expenses</em><em> are higher than</em> net income is <em>D. dissaving.</em>
Dissaving happens when an individual is spending from either previous savings or borrowing to fund current expenses.
Dissaving is commoner with retirees than those currently employed. But it can also happen to currently-employed persons, whose expenses are more than their incomes. They should find strategies to stop the negative saving. Otherwise, their debts may be overbearing in future.
Thus, dissaving means negative saving or <em>spending more than income.</em>
Learn more: brainly.com/question/13954775
Answer:
The total number of hours worked by an average factory worker has fallen over the years
Explanation:
