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Luba_88 [7]
3 years ago
12

Kellie and her sister Ashley are training for a race. Kellie ran 8 miles in 72 minutes. Ashley ran 12 miles in 102 minutes. plea

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(a) What is Kellie’s minute-per-mile pace?


(b) How far did Ashley run in 34 minutes?


(c) What was the difference in Kellie and Ashley’s times after they ran 4 miles?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Kipish [7]3 years ago
7 0

a) 9 minutes/mile

b) 4 miles

c) 2 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The minute-per-mile pace is equivalent to the reciprocal of the speed, so it can be calculated as:

p=\frac{t}{d}

where

d is the distance covered

t is the time taken to cover that distance

For Kellie in this problem, we have:

d = 8 miles (distance covered)

t = 72 minutes (time taken)

Therefore, her minute-per-mile pace is given by:

p=\frac{72 min}{8 mi}=9 min/mi

b)

First of all, we have to calculate Ashley's speed. This is given by

v=\frac{d}{t}

d is the distance covered

t is the time taken to cover that distance

For Ashley, we have

d = 12 miles (distance)

t = 102 minutes (time)

So, her speed is

v=\frac{12}{102}=\frac{2}{17} mi/min

The distance covered in a time t is given by

d=vt

Therefore, for t = 34 min, the distance covered is:

d=(\frac{2}{17})\cdot 34 =4 mi

c)

We already know from part b) that the time taken for Ashley to cover 4 miles is

t_a=34 min

Therefore now we have to find the time taken for Kellie to cover the same 4 miles.

We know that the minutes-per-mile pace of Kellie is (part a)

p=9 \frac{min}{mi}

Here we want to find the time taken for Kellie to cover a distance of

d = 4 miles

This can be obtained with the equation

t=pd

And substituting, we find:

t=9\cdot 4 = 36 min

So, the difference in time is:

\Delta t = 36 min - 34 min = 2 min

So Kellie takes 2 minutes more to run 4 miles.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A:

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Part B:

(0, 325) (5, 400)

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Part D:

x = 12

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4 years ago
1. A company has a cash portfolio measured in millions. The drift is 0.1 per month, variance is 0.16per month. The initial cash
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the information given:

The probability distribution at the end of 6 months is determined as follows:

After 6 months;

Mean of probability distribution =  value of Initial cash  + \alphaT  

=2.0 +(0.1 × 6)

=2.6

After 6 months;

The probability distribution's standard deviation is estimated by using the following formula:

Standard deviation:

=  b\sqrt{T}

= 0.4 \times \sqrt{6}

= 0.9798

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            2.6

Standard deviation     0.9798

Variance                      0.96

After 12 months, the probability distribution is as follows:

Mean = value of Initial cash  + \alphaT

= 2.0 +(0.1 × 12)

= 3.2

The standard deviation is:

The standard deviation of probability distribution = b \sqrt{T}

= 0.4 \times \sqrt{12}

= 1.3856

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            3.2

Sandard deviation      1.3856

Variance                      1.92

b)  

in 6-month distribution, the probability of the negative value of the cash position is as follows.

Now, for us to find the negative cash distribution;

We need to estimate the z -scores value.

The z-score inform us greatly on the concept of how far a particular data point is from the mean.

For a normal distribution;

z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

Here;

the value of x = zero as a result that if it exceeds zero. the cash position will be negative.

∴

z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

z = \dfrac{0 - 2.6}{0.9798}

z = -2.6536

Using the standard distribution tables, it is now possible to calculate that the likelihood N(-2.65) equals 0.004 or 0.4 percent.

As a result, there's a 0.4 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after six months.

For 12 months distribution:

The Probability of negative cash position is calculated as follows:

z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-3.2}{1.3856} \\ \\ z = -2.3094

Using the standard distribution tables,

N(-2.31) equals 0.0104 or 1.04 percent.

As a result, there's a 1.04 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after 1 year  

c) To determine the time period over which the likelihood of achieving a negative cash condition is highest, it's necessary to examine the z-score more closely. Essentially, the z-score measures the difference between a given value(x) and the mean of all potential values (\mu), expressed in terms of the total set's standard deviation (\sigma)

This suggests that the higher the z-score, the greater the difference occurring between x and \mu, and thus the likelihood of receiving x is minimal. As a result, the best chance of finding a certain value is when the z-score is the lowest.

To do so, calculate the derivative of the z-score in relation to the time interval. The point where the derivative is equivalent to zero is where the z-scores are at their lowest.

The first step is to go over the z-score formula in more detail, as seen below.;

z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-(initial \ value + \alpha T)}{b \sqrt{T}} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{-initial \ value }{b\sqrt{T}}-\dfrac{a \sqrt{T}}{b} \\ \\

Now, compute the derivative of this equation with respect to T as follows:

\dfrac{dz}{dT}= \dfrac{initial \ value \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2b} - \dfrac{aT^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2b}

Now, figure out the value of T at which this derivative is equal to zero by substituting all values as follows:

0 = \dfrac{2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2\times 0.4}- \dfrac{0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2 \times 0.4} \\ \\  \\ 0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}= 2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}} \\ \\  \\T = \dfrac{2}{0.1} \\ \\ \\ T = 20

As a result, the time period in which achieving a negative cash condition is = 20 months.

3 0
3 years ago
Please help me as soon as possible
elixir [45]
You might want to see what other people say but I think that it is 40
5 0
3 years ago
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Complete the statement.<br><br><br><br><br>Since angle B is the largest angle, is the side.
postnew [5]

Answer:

<em>∠B is the largest interior angle of the triangle, and AC is the</em><em> largest</em><em> side.</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Relationship of sides to interior angles in a triangle-

  1. The shortest side of a triangle is always opposite to the smallest interior angle.
  2. The longest side of a triangle is always opposite to the largest interior angle.

So converse of the second property is the side opposite to the largest interior angle is always the largest side.

As ∠B is the largest interior angle of the triangle, so its opposite side which is AC will be the largest side.

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