Operating expenses are taken from the normal business operation such as administrative or selling expense. It is part of the operating cost. Markup is defined as the amount added to the cost of goods to fix a selling price. So, to answer the question above: True.
Answer:
The higher discount rate lower the banks incentive to borrow from the Fed, lowering the quantity of reserves, and causing the money supply to fall.
This is because a higher discount rate makes borrowing from the Fed more expensive. Some of the money that would have been borrowed from the fed becomes bank reserves, and some other becomes loanable funds that increase the money supply. As a result, if banks borrow less from the fed, the money supply falls (or grow less).
The Fed Funds rate is the rate that banks charge one another for short-term overnight loans.
This occurs when banks are stripped of cash, and rely on other banks to meet their cash requirements for the day.
When the Fed buys government bonds, the reserves in the banking system increases, the banks demand for the reserves decreases, and the federal funds rate falls.
When the Fed buys government bonds, it is essentially creating money. This money enters the banking system in the form of reserves, of which some are loaned out, creating even money. Demand for the borrowed reserves falls because banks now need less of it, and as a result, their price: the federal funds rate, also falls.
Explanation:
Answer:
$10,800 underapplied
Explanation:
Calculation for If overhead is applied based on machine hours, the overapplied/underapplied overhead is:
Overhead machine hours=[($1,044,000/24,000)×23,600]-1,037,400
Overhead machine hours=($43.50 x 23,600) - 1,037,400
Overhead machine hours=$1,026,600- 1,037,400
Overhead machine hours= $10,800 underapplied
Therefore If overhead is applied based on machine hours, the overapplied/underapplied overhead is:$10,800 underapplied
Answer:
$19.47
Explanation:
The computation of the price paid for share is shown below:
= Year second dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
where,
Next year dividend is
= $2.20 + $2.20 × 2.2%
= $2.20 + $0.0484
= $2.2484
In the year 2 , it is
= $2.2484 × 1.022
= $2.2978648
And, the required rate of return is 14%
Plus the growth rate is 2.2%
So, the price paid for the share is
= ( $2.2978648) ÷ (14% - 2.2%)
= $19.47
Answer:
See the explanation section.
Explanation:
Mar. 4 Cleaning supplies debit = $77
Accounts payable - Health-Rite Supplies credit = $77
<em>To record the purchase of supplies.</em>
Mar. 19 Office equipment Debit = $3,750
Accounts payable - office Warehouse Credit = $3,750
<em>To record the purchase of office equipment on account.</em>
Mar. 23 Cleaning supplies Debit = $224
Accounts payable - Rubble Supplies Credit = $224
<em>To record the purchase of supplies.</em>
