All categories

3 years ago

6. Which of the following inequalities is true? (1 point)

Mathematics

1 answer:

aleksley [76]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

15/2 < √81

15/2=7.5

√81=9

7.5<9

You might be interested in

A student used the complex fraction

34kurt

Answer:1

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What expressions are equivalent to 4x-5

Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

2(2x-2.5)

4(x-1.25)

5(0.8x-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please help me!! I’d really appreciate it!

Phantasy [73]

A lot of teachers don't teach SohCahToa anymore! this acronym will really help you. I'd suggest looking up how to use it, it'll make trigonometry WAY easier!

6 0

3 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

5 0

3 years ago

3. A plane travels at a constant speed. It takes 6 hours to travel 3,360 miles. (20 points)

Vilka [71]

Answer:

a. The plane's speed in mph is 560

b. At this rate, the plane can travel 5,600 miles in 10 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the planes speed in mph, some simple arithmetic must be done and you should divide 3,360 by 6. Now that you have determined that 3,360/6 equals 560, you know that in order to figure out how many miles the plane can travel in 10 hours, all you must do is multiply 560 by 10 which equals 5,600.

7 0

3 years ago