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finlep [7]
3 years ago
6

g The current ratio is a.a solvency measure that indicates the margin of safety for bondholders. b.used to evaluate a company's

liquidity and short-term debt paying ability. c.calculated by dividing current liabilities by current assets. d.calculated by subtracting current liabilities from current assets.
Business
1 answer:
adoni [48]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

b.used to evaluate a company's liquidity and short-term debt paying ability.

Explanation:

The current ratio is a liquidity ratio that measures a company's ability to pay short-term obligations or those due within one year. It tells investors and analysts how a company can maximize the current assets on its balance sheet to satisfy its current debt and other payables.

The current ratio is sometimes referred to as the “working capital” ratio and helps investors understand more about a company’s ability to cover its short-term debt with its current assets.

A company with a current ratio less than one does not, in many cases, have the capital on hand to meet its short-term obligations if they were all due at once, while a current ratio greater than one indicates the company has the financial resources to remain solvent in the short-term.

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Assets Liabilities and Net Worth Reserves $51 Checkable Deposits $140 Loans 109 Stock Shares 130 Securities 100 Property 10 Refe
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

$9 billion

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what The commercial banking system has excess reserves of

Using this formula

Excess Reserve= Net Worth Reserves -Required reserve

Let plug in the formula

Excess Reserve=$51 billion - (.30*$140 billion)

Excess Reserve=$51 billion-$42 billion

Excess Reserve=$9 billion

Therefore The commercial banking system has excess reserves of $9 billion

5 0
3 years ago
On January​ 1, 2018, Brazos Company purchased equipment and signed a sixminusyear mortgage note for $ 186 comma 000 at 15​%. The
kifflom [539]

Answer:

The journal entry to record the first installment payment will include a​ debit to interest expense of $27,900, mortgage notes payable of $21,248 and a credit to cash account of $49,148

Explanation:

For recording the first installment payment, we have to compute the interest amount which is given below:

Interest amount = value of Mortgage note × rate × year

                           = $186,000 × 15% × 1 year

                           = $27,900

Since we have to compute the installment for January​ 1, 2019, therefore, we take the one year period

Now, we have to compute the principal amount which equals tp

= Installment amount - interest expense

= $49,148 - $27,900

= $21,248

So, the journal entry would be

Interest expense A/c Dr             $27,900

Mortgage note payable A/c Dr   $21,248

    To Cash                                                       $49,148

(Being payment of the first installment recorded)

7 0
3 years ago
The Wood Division of Bramble Corp. manufactures rubber moldings and sells them externally for $45. Its variable cost is $25 per
Lyrx [107]

Answer:

c. $45

Explanation:

Transfer price is the price charged for a product which is transferred to other department/ division / subsidiary of same company / group. The minimum selling price in the absence of any excess capacity is the price available in the market, because the company has demand for the product and it does not lost the sale if transfer not takes place. The product can be sold in the market. So the Transfer price should be $45.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Kline Construction is an all-equity firm that has projected perpetual EBIT of $360,000. The current cost of equity is 13.3 perce
Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

Value of Levered Firm is 1,728,095

Explanation:

As company has total equity based, So, the cost of equity will be the discount rate to calculate the value of equity.

Value of Equity = $360,000 ( 1 - 0.4 ) / 13.3% = $1,624,060

Value of Debt = $976,000

Total value = $1,624,060 + $976,000 = $2,600,060

Now calculate the WACC

WACC = (13.3% x $1,624,060/$2,600,060) + (5.9% x $976,000/$2,600,060)

WACC = 8.3% + 2.2%

WACC = 10.5%

Now Assuming the EBIT remains the same.

Value of the firm = [ ( $360,000- (976,000 x 5.9%) ) x ( 1 - 0.4 ) ] / 10.5%

Value of the firm = $181,450 / 0.105 = 1,728,095

8 0
3 years ago
SSG Cycles manufactures and distributes motorcycle parts and supplies. Employees are offered a variety of share-based compensati
andriy [413]

Answer:

$85.80 million.

Explanation:

The total compensation cost pertaining to the incentive stock option plan can simply be calculated by multiplying the the number shares the options permit holders to acquire by the fair value per option which is estimated by an appropriate option pricing model as given below:

Total compensation cost = 22 million × $3.90 = $85.80 million.

Therefore, the total compensation cost pertaining to the incentive stock option plan is $85.80 million.

7 0
3 years ago
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