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kkurt [141]
3 years ago
8

Which of the following documents did NOT influence the U.S. Constitution?

History
2 answers:
Aneli [31]3 years ago
7 0
<span>Bible documents did NOT influence the U.S. Constitution. I think that is been excluded in the US Constitution.</span>
ANTONII [103]3 years ago
4 0

The correct answer is D) the Koran.

The document that did NOT influence the U.S. Constitution was the Koran.

The Koran is the sacred book for the Muslims. It includes the teachings of Islam and the prophet Mohammed. It is the equivalent of the Bible for Christians.

The Koran did not influence the US Constitution. What truly indeed influence it was the Bible, Justinian Codex, and the Code of Hammurabi, which in fact was the first set of codes of written laws established by King Hammurabi. We are referring to a king of ancient Mesopotamia civilization.

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Ebjkebvjkebviuoehirio<br>krf
max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

DNAL YRD A NI REVIR A

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
How did congressional neutrality towards slavery in the federal territories actually stir up sectional strife
dusya [7]

Answer:

The neutrality of the congress generated polarization in the country. This polarization caused states where slavery was prohibited to criticize and devalue states where slavery was allowed, which retaliated against devaluation with further devaluation.

Explanation:

When Congress decided to stay neutral in relation to slavery in the country, Congressmen believed that this would generate peace in the country, as each state would have autonomy to decide whether it wanted to use slaves or not.

However, the result could not have been more different. Neutrality generated polarization and many conflicts between countries that allowed slaves and prohibited slaves. Countries that did not allow slavery criticized, devalued and tried to interfere with the autonomy of the states that allowed slavery. The slaves who allowed slavery did not tolerate this interference and retaliated as best they could, in addition to promoting a strong devaluation in relation to free countries.

8 0
3 years ago
How did the role of the federal government in the u.s. economy, and in american life generally, change in 1917-1918?
Rudik [331]
War caused production rates to go up which led to increased economy and promoted womens rights. 
8 0
3 years ago
Why does the United States use embargoes as a tool of foreign policy?
loris [4]

Answer:

A. Cutting off all relations with a country is an effective way to show that its actions are unacceptable.

Explanation:

In trade and international politics, an embargo is the prohibition of trading and negotiating with a particular country. It is usually declared by one group of nations against another, in order to isolate it and place its government in a difficult internal situation, since the effects of the embargo often cause its economy to suffer. The embargo is normally used as a political punishment for certain prior policies with which it is not agreed, although its economic nature often leaves enough space to doubt the true interests that benefit from the measure.

8 0
3 years ago
Which explains why the price indicated by p2 on the graph is higher than the equilibrium price? As prices rise, quantity demande
blondinia [14]

The economy operates according to the law of supply and demand for goods and services. According to this theory, the interaction between supply and demand for a good or service fits and the vector of adjustment is price.

If the price is high, there is more supply than demand. If the price is low, there is more demand than supply. If demand increases, price increases and supply increases. If demand falls, the price falls. That is, the price makes the interaction. There will be a moment where the quantity offered is exactly equal to the quantity demanded, at which point the price practiced is the equilibrium price.

So if an economy is in equilibrium at a time and then the price charged is higher than the equilibrium price, it means that demand has gotten higher than supply.

<u>However, none of the alternatives would explain why a price is charged above the equilibrium price.</u> <u>The answer is the reverse of what is written in alternative (A)</u>. The truth is this: As the quantity demanded rises, the price rises above the equilibrium price.  <u>This is the answer</u>.

The alternative (B) is true, although it does not answer the question of the problem. If prices rise, demand falls. This is because the high price discourages consumption.  

BTW, I'm an economist and I'm sure.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 3 more answers
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