Answer:
0.04865 or 4.9%
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a binomial distribution function which is expressed as:
Where:
- p=probability of success
- x=number of successful events
- n=size of the sample
Given that p=0.03, n=12 and x=2+, the probability of a cash back is calculated as:
![P(X=x){n\choose x}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}\\\\P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X\leq 1)\\\\=1-[{12\choose 0}0.03^0(0.97)^{12}+{12\choose 1}0.03^1(0.97)^{11}]\\\\\\=1-[0.69384+0.25751]\\\\\\=0.04865](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3Dx%29%7Bn%5Cchoose%20x%7Dp%5Ex%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-x%7D%5C%5C%5C%5CP%28X%5Cgeq%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%201%29%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D1-%5B%7B12%5Cchoose%200%7D0.03%5E0%280.97%29%5E%7B12%7D%2B%7B12%5Cchoose%201%7D0.03%5E1%280.97%29%5E%7B11%7D%5D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D1-%5B0.69384%2B0.25751%5D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D0.04865)
Hence, the probability of a cash return is 0.04865 or 4.9%
You'd have to add 19w in order to cancel out the -19w
Answer:
$315
Step-by-step explanation:
600-600=0
0+315=315
Answer:
x= 8
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation of direct variation is
y = kx
When y = 50 when x = 40
50 = k* 40
Divide each side by 40
50/40 = k
5/4 = k
The equation is
y = 5/4x
Let y = 10
10 = 5/4x
Multiply each side by 4/5
4/5 * 10 = 5/4 x * 4/5
8 = x
3x^2+7x
18x^2-12x
-12x^3-8x^2
6x^3-18x^2+6x
