Does Churchill use the phrase the same way as before, or in a different way?

2 answers:

5 0

because he is trying to get a specific point across that he will not be defeated by the invading third reich, which is why us (united states), Britain, France, and Denmark all invaded normandy to overtake, and destroy the germans atlantic wall, it was one of the main points, and because of that raid, we were able to push them all the way back to their original borders, then invade germany, and completely exterminate the third reich which had destroyed all of europe, and due to exterminating them we won the war, and germany had to repay all damages done

Colt1911 [192]3 years ago

5 0

different than the way before

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