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Simora [160]
3 years ago
12

Part E14 is used by M Corporation to make one of its products. A total of 22,000 units of this part are produced and used every

year. The company's Accounting Department reports the following costs of producing the part at this level of activity: Per Unit Direct materials$4.70 Direct labor$9.30 Variable manufacturing overhead$9.80 Supervisor's salary$5.20 Depreciation of special equipment$3.60 Allocated general overhead$8.80 An outside supplier has offered to make the part and sell it to the company for $31.90 each. If this offer is accepted, the supervisor's salary and all of the variable costs, including the direct labor, can be avoided. The special equipment used to make the part was purchased many years ago and has no salvage value or other use. The allocated general overhead represents fixed costs of the entire company, none of which would be avoided if the part were purchased instead of produced internally. In addition, the space used to make part E14 could be used to make more of one of the company's other products, generating an additional segment margin of $34,000 per year for that product. The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company as a result of buying part E14 from the outside supplier should be:
Business
1 answer:
murzikaleks [220]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(29,800)

Explanation:

The computation of the financial advantage or disadvantage is shown below:

As we know that

Financial disadvantage = Cost of making - Cost of buying

where,

Cost of making is

= [(Direct material per unit + direct labor per unit + variable manufacturing overhead per unit) × units produced] + additional segment margin

= [($4.7 + $9.30 + $9.80 + $5.20) × 22,000 units] + $34,000

= ($29 × 22,000 units ) + $34,000

= $672,000

And, the Cost of buying is

= Units produced × offered price

= 22,000 units × $31.90

= $701,800

So,

Financial disadvantage is

= Cost of making - Cost of buying

= $672,000 - $701,800

= (29,800)

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Compute the cost assigned to ending inventory using (a) FIFO, (b) LIFO, (c) weighted average, and (d) specific identification. F
masha68 [24]

Answer:

Closing Units =  (710 units - 490 units)= 220 units

a) FIFO : closing inventory = $14,040

   Mar 18 purchase 20 *$62 =$1,240

  Mar 25 purchase 200 *$64 = $12,800

b) LIFO : closing inventory = $12,780

Mar 1 opening = 90 * $52 =$4,680

Mar 18 purchase = 110 * $62 = $6,820

Mar 25 purchase = 20*$64 =1,280

c) Weighted Average Method (WAM) :

WAM= (Opening cost + purchases cost)/(opening units +units purchased)

       = ($7,800+$14,250)/(150+250) = $55.125 cost before Mar 9 sale

WAM(after the first sale) = ($4,961.25 +$6,820 + $12,800)/(90+110+200)

                                        = $61.45

Closing Inventory = $61.45*220 =$13,519

d) Specific Identification :Closing Inventory = $13,070

Mar 01 opening = 60 *$52 =$3,120

Mar 5 Purchase = 30*$57 =$1,710

Mar 18 Purchase = 40*$62 =$2,480

Mar 25 Purchase = 90*$64 =$5,760

Explanation:

The Question is incomplete. I have provided the missing part of the question below.

Date Activities Units Acquired at Cost Units Sold at Retail

Mar. 1  Beginning inventory  150 units  $52.00/unit    

Mar. 5  Purchase  250 units  $57.00/unit    

Mar. 9  Sales      310 units  $87.00/unit

Mar. 18  Purchase  110 units  $62.00/unit    

Mar. 25  Purchase  200 units  $64.00/unit    

Mar. 29  Sales      180 units  $97.00/unit

     Totals  710 units   490 units

5 0
4 years ago
The following information has been gathered for Foxmoor Industries for its fiscal year ending December 31: Estimated factory ove
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $32 per labor hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The estimated factory overhead costs $ 2,496,000. Estimated labor hours 78,000.

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 2496000/78000= $32 per labor hour

5 0
3 years ago
Consider the markets for head sets, smart phones, cellular telephone service, and cell phone applications. Assume the market for
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

a) Head sets - perfect competition

b) Smart phones - monopolistic competition

c) Cellular telephone service - oligopoly

d) Cell phone applications - monopolistic competition

Explanation:

The following definitions explain the categorisation of competition:

- Perfect competition is when many firms sell similar products, no firm or buyer has control of market price. The barriers to entry are low. This is characterised by headsets

- The market for smart phones is monopolistic competition because advertisement is used to create product differentiation with the aim of gaining better market control

- Oligopoly is characterised by few firms controlling the market and keeping each other from dominating the market. This is they type of competition for cellular telephone service.

- Monopolistic competition is one where many firms produce dirlfferentiated products that are not substitutes. This is shown in market for cell phone applications

6 0
3 years ago
Journalize transactions and follow through accounting cycle to preparation of financial statements.
MrRa [10]

Answer:

Salaries expense DR. $1220

Cash Cr. $1220

Cash Dr. $1860

Account receivable Cr. $1860

Cash Dr. $3810

Account receivable Cr. $3810

Purchases Dr. $3900

Cash Cr. $3900

Explanation:

Accounts payable Dr. 2600

Cash Cr. $2600

Rent expense Dr. $450

Cash Cr. $450

Account receivable Dr. $980

Services Cr. 980

8 0
3 years ago
In the trading of a security, the dealer's spread refers to _____. a. the sum of the bid and asked prices of a security, which r
ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

d. the difference between the bid and asked prices of a security, which represents the dealer's markup, or profit from a security transaction.

Explanation:

CAPM is an acronym for capital asset pricing model. The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) can be defined as a model or formula that can be used to calculate an investment risk and the expected return on an investment (assets).

Simply stated, the capital asset pricing model gives an investor the relationship between the risk of investing in securities and its expected returns. Thus, it assists investors in making well-informed decisions about whether or not to add to a portfolio.

Additionally, the expected return could be either a profit or loss depending on the risks associated with the securities.

Mathematically, the CAPM is given by this formula;

R_{a} = R_{rf} + \beta_{a} * (R_{m} - R_{rf})

Where;

R_{a} = Expected return on a security

R_{rf} = Risk-free rate

\beta_{a} = beta of the security

R_{m} = Expected return of the market

(R_{m} - R_{rf}) = Equity market premium

In the trading of a security, the dealer's spread refers to the difference between the bid and asked prices of a security, which represents the dealer's markup, or profit from a security transaction.

Simply stated, the bid-ask spread refers to the amount by which the bid price by a dealer is lower than the ask-price for a security or an asset in the market at a specific period of time.

The bid-ask spread exists because of the need for dealers to cover expenses and make a profit. A bid-ask spread is use in the transaction of the following items; options, future contracts, stocks, and currency pairs.

Generally, a dealer who is willing to sell an asset or securities would receive a bid price while the price at which the dealer is willing to sell his asset to another dealer (buyer) is the ask price.

8 0
3 years ago
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