Question

PLEASE HELP!!!!!

Answer 1

Answer:

2/3 because the angles are complementary

Step-by-step explanation:

No matter what the measure of the angle is cos(x) will always equal sin(90-x).

Answer 2

Answer:

option A

Step-by-step explanation:

If the cos 46° = $\frac{2}{3}$

Since cos and sin are complimentary

cos x = sin ( 90 - x )

So by putting x = 46°

cos 46 = sin ( 90 - 46 ) =  $\frac{2}{3}$

cos 46° = sin 44° =  $\frac{2}{3}$

Therefore, option A will be the answer.