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agasfer [191]
3 years ago
5

A shift which is designed to cause team b to encroach is a false start.

Business
2 answers:
nikklg [1K]3 years ago
7 0

ANSWER: After a ball is marked ready and before the play begins, any attempt made by A player will result to penalty and will be declared a false start. There is a a strict rule that no false start shall be made in the game. There is also a rule that no one except the snapper shall encroach on the neutral zone to give defensive signals.

Bas_tet [7]3 years ago
3 0

In field hockey, a punishment corner, in some cases known as a short corner, is a punishment given against the protecting group.

Further Explanation:

In field hockey, a punishment corner, in some cases known as a short corner, is a punishment given against the protecting group. It is transcendently granted for a cautious encroachment in the punishment hover or for an intentional encroachment inside the protective 23-meter zone.

Explanation:

After a ball is checked prepared and before the play starts, any endeavor made by A player will result to punishment and will be proclaimed a bogus beginning. There is an a severe guideline that no bogus beginning will be made in the game. There is likewise a standard that nobody with the exception of the snapper will infringe on the unbiased zone to give guarded sign.

Difference between penalty stroke and corner:

The punishment corner closes when an objective is scored, the ball is played over the back line and another punishment corner isn't granted, a punishment stroke is granted, the shielding group is granted a free hit, or the ball ventures in excess of 5 meters outside the circle (for example past the spotted line outside the shooting circle).

Answer Details:

Subject: Business

Level: High School.

Key Words:

Further Explanation:

Explanation:

Difference between penalty stroke and corner:

For further Evaluation:

brainly.com/question/1615507

brainly.com/question/13048668

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If a pure monopolist is operating in a range of output where demand is elastic:
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer: The correct answer is "c. marginal revenue will be positive but declining.".

Explanation: If a pure monopolist is operating in a range of output where demand is elastic: marginal revenue will be positive but declining.

To the extent that the monopolist's demand has a negative slope, the marginal income is always below it. And this is so because to sell more the monopolist has to lower the price, and this reduction in the price affects all the units that will sell.

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3 years ago
Your firm has just entered the polish market for bottled water. the major distributor is owned by a competitive producer of bott
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<span>You can provide cheaper bottled water, therefore giving customers an option for cheaper water. You can heavily market in your area in order to get the word out as well.</span>
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3 years ago
Although she wasn't told this when hired, at her new job Donna noticed that the employees eat lunch at their desks while continu
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

organizational culture.

Explanation:

organizational culture refers to a set of principles or beliefs that influence the way people behave within the organization.

The organizational culture tend to be differ between one company to another. It will be heavily depended on how the upper management wants the company to operate.

For example,

Some company wanted to create a very formal environment. They want their employees to dress like a professional and  wants their employees to be extremely disciplined /completely focus their time on the job. You can see this type of organizational culture in most companies within the Finance industry.

Some company on the other hand, wants to create a comfortable environment. They let the employees dress casually and treat their work space like their private room at home.  This type of culture can usually be found in art-related companies. Donna's workplace will most likely included in this category;.

7 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2016, Learned, Inc., issued $70 million face amount of 20-year, 14% stated rate bonds when market interest rates w
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

A) $61,654,600

B) June 30, 2016, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 4,840,000

Dr Premium on bonds payable 60,000

    Cr Cash 4,900,000

C) If you use the effective interest rate, the bond premium is higher, so the actual interest expense would be lower:

June 30, 2016, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 4,756,406

Dr Premium on bonds payable 143,594

    Cr Cash 4,900,000

D) The actual difference between the coupon rate and the effective interest rate (with a $72,400,000 issue price) = 14% (coupon rate) - 13.93% = 0.07%.

The bond's issue price is generally determined by the market rate, but sometimes a company might believe that the interest rate applicable to them is actually different. A company might under estimate the riskiness of their operations, but the market doesn't. Generally the market rate is correct. So any variation in the coupon rate is due to a mistake by the firm. Usually companies do not make huge mistakes, if they miss on the coupon rate it generally is not significant.

Explanation:

issued $70 million face amount of 20-year, 14% stated rate bonds when market interest rates were 16%. The bonds pay interest semi-annually each June 30 and December 31, each coupon = $4,900,000

bonds market price = PV of maturity value + PV of coupons

  • PV of maturity value = $70,000,000 x 0.04603 = $3,222,100
  • PV of coupons = $4,900,000 x (8% annuity, 40 periods) = $4,900,000 x 11.925 = $58,432,500
  • total issue price = $61,654,600

if instead the issue price was $72,400,000 (resulting in a $2,400,000 premium), then the premium would be amortized by $2,400,000 / 40 = $60,000 during each coupon payment

if the effective interest method, (not the compound interest method), was used to amortize bond premium, then we first need to calculate the effective interest rate:

$72,400,000 - $70,000,000 = $2,400,000 / 40 = $60,000

$4,900,000 + $60,000 = $4,960,000 / {($72,400,000 + $70,000,000) / 2} = 0.0696629

bond premium discount using effective interest rate = ($72,400,000 x 0.0696629) - $4,900,000 = $5,043,594 - $4,900,000 = $143,594

7 0
3 years ago
Flyer Company has provided the following information prior to any year-end bad debt adjustment: Cash sales, $158,000 Credit sale
IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

$8,870

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after bad debt expense is recorded

Using this formula

Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts=

(Credit sales* Percentage of Credit sales)+Allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance

Let plug in the formula

Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts= ($458,000*1.5%)+$2,000

Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts=$6,870+$2,000

Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts=$8,870

Therefore the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after bad debt expense is recorded will be $8,870

6 0
3 years ago
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