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balandron [24]
3 years ago
15

Please help with #8!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
DiKsa [7]3 years ago
8 0

The two triangles are obviously congruent.

If you were to turn the 2nd triangle up-side-down, you would see that both of the triangles are the same.

Additionally, each side of each triangle that has the 1 line going through it tells us that those two lines are the same.

And each side of each triangle that has the 2 lines going through it tells us that those 2 lines are also the same. At this point, it's good to infer that the 3rd line from each triangle that doesn't have a line going through it is also the same.


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