<span> it permitted Indians to withdraw private plots from the tribal reservation.
</span>
The correct answer is - True.
Prior to the Mughal invasion, India was divided into multiple smaller Muslim and Hindu kingdoms. They were in constant conflict with one another, and also were not any significant force individually.
The Mughals used this circumstances. They moved south from the Central Asia steppes, and by using the typical Mongol horde-style of warfare managed to defeat these small kingdoms with relative ease. Once they did that, they had under their control most of the northern half of India, and remained in the region for several centuries.
No bc Congress makes all the decisions.... for example, the President can try to make a law, but the Congress an veto it
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
What caused West Africans to transition from controlling the exchange of goods to European slave raiders was the fact that European powers such as Great Britain, Spain, or Portugal directly competed to acquire the control of the slave trade of African people.
Everything started with John Hawkins, considered to be the first European slave trader in 1562. Years later the government of Englan granted charters to merchants and traders to open locations in West Africa where they could exploit the raw materials and natural resources such as ivory and gold. Because of this, England started to get more competition from other European nations such as Switzerland, the Dutch, and Denmark.
Answer:
I'm pretty sure it's 0%
Explanation:
The apr usually is 0% for the first 6 months
