1 mile = about 1 1/3 km because 8/6 = 1 1/3
so 28 times 1 1/3 = 37 1/3 (first answer)
42 / 6 = 7
7 miles are in 42 km (2nd answer)
2nd opinion that’s your answer
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
No
As you may already be familiar, these functions f(x) and g(x) are piecewise. They consist of multiple functions with different domains.
1. For #1, the given input is f(0). Since 0≤1, you should use the first equation to solve. f(0)=3(0)-1 ➞ f(0)=-1
2. Continue to evaluate the given input for the domains given. 1≤1, therefore f(1)=3(1)-1➞f(1)=2
3. 5>1, therefore f(5)=1-2(5)➞f(5)=-9
4. -4≤1; f(-4)=3(-4)-1➞f(-4)=-13
5. -3<0<1; g(0)=2
6. -3≤-3; g(-3)=3(-3)-1➞g(-3)=-10
7. 1≥1; g(1)=-3(1)➞g(1)=-3
8. 3≥1; g(3)=-3(3)➞g(3)=-9
9. -5≤-3; g(-5)=3(-5)-1➞g(-5)=-16
Hope this helps! Good luck!
Answer:
(8x+22)
Step-by-step explanation:
