Answer:
value of the firm = 21.20 million
value of the firm = 20.80 million
Explanation:
given data
current profits = $400,000
annual rate = 4 percent
opportunity cost = 6 percent
solution
we get here value of the firm before pays out current profits as dividend is express as
value of the firm = current profits ( 1+opportunity cost ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................1
put here value
value of the firm = 
value of the firm = 21.20 million
and
value of the firm after pays is
value of the firm = current profits ( 1+annual rate ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................2
value of the firm = 
value of the firm = 20.80 million
Answer:
A. Selection of the appropriate causal variable Y is important
Explanation:
We have this function, Y = f(X).
From this function we can see that Y is dependent on X. That is, it is a function of X. Y is not a causal variable. A causal variable is a variable that is able to influence the variable of interest. From this question Y is the variable of interest. It is the dependent variable. The independent variable is X and it is the causal variable.
Therefore the incorrect one is Selection of the appropriate causal variable Y is important
Have knowledge of basic math
Answer:
The effect on the sale of PV1 would be $3,000 and on PV2 it is $1,500
Explanation:
For computing the effect on the ordinary income, we have to do the following adjustment which is shown below:
PV1 = Sale price-adjusted basis
= $8,000 - $5,000
= $3,000
The $3,000 represent the short term capital gain, and it is a short term capital gain because the equipment is sold in less than 1 year
PV2 = Sale price-adjusted basis
= $16,000 - $18,000
= - $2,000
The $ -2,000 represents the long term capital loss , and it is a long term capital loss because the equipment is sold in more than 1 year
So, the effect on the sale of PV1 would be $3,000 and on PV2 it is $1,500 because the deduction is allowed to a maximum of $1,500
