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Reika [66]
3 years ago
8

Because she beat her goal this year by nearly 30 percent, Helena has been telling everyone in the sales department of her incred

ible skill as a salesperson. But last year when she didn’t even reach her goal, she said her failure was due to the poor economy. Helena provides an example of
Business
1 answer:
uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<u>self-serving bias.</u>

Explanation:

Self-serving bias is a cognitive trait that induces people to believe that the success achieved by doing something comes from internal factors such as self-effort, intelligence, insight. While when they perform negatively, they attribute to external factors such as economy, bad luck, influence from other people.

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Procter &amp; Gamble’s June 30, 2016, financial statements reported the following (in millions): Cash, beginning of year $ 6,836
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

(9,594)

Explanation:

The net cash movement during a period the sum of cashflow from operations (CFO), cashflow from investing activities (CFI) and cashflow from financing (CFF) activities. On the other hand, that net cash movement is also calculated as the difference between end of year cash position and start of year cash position. Given that, we have the equation as below:

End of year cash position - Start of year cash position = CFO + CFI + CFF

Putting all the number together, we have:

7,102 - 6,836 = 15,435 - 5,575 + CFF

Solve the equation, we have CFF = (9,594)

5 0
3 years ago
Is boohoo a good website? ​
koban [17]

Answer: From what I've heard ,yes!

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
"Many service companies collect data via a follow-up survey of their customers. Suppose, in order to ascertain customer sentimen
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer: Categorical; Ordinal

Explanation:

The data that are collected by the airline in this case is referred to as categorical.

The categorical variables are simply referred to as categorical variables because they can be segregated into groups. Also, the measurement of scale that is used is the ordinal scale.

Ordinal data is a kind of categorical data with a set order or scale to it.

Comment

5 0
3 years ago
The Good Chocolate Company makes a variety of chocolate candies, including a 12-ounce chocolate bar (340 grams) and a box of six
joja [24]

Answer:

A) ≈ 3.509 grams

B) The process is not capable because the lowest Cpk which is 1.89 ≈ 1.9 is far from the ideal 1.33 capability index number ( NO )

c) 1.051 ounces

Explanation:

A) The largest standard deviation ( in grams)

This can be calculated applying the capability index formula and according to the capability index formula the value at which a process is capable is at  : 1.33

hence the largest standard deviation =  upper limit - lower limit / 6 * 1.33

 ( 354 - 326 ) / 7.98 = 3.5087 ≈ 3.509 grams

B) we first calculate the process mean and std of the box

standard deviation = \sqrt{variance }

std of the six-bar box = \sqrt{6*0.86^2}  = 2.106

process mean = 6 * ( 1.03 * 28.33) = 175.079

the mean is not centered between the upper specification and the lower specification hence we will apply the formulae used in calculating the capability index for an uncentered process

Cpk = (upper value - process mean) / (3 * std of box),

         = (187 - 175.079) / ( 3 * 2.106) = 11.921 / 6.318 = 1.89

Cpk =  (process mean -  lower value ) / (3*std of box)

       = ( 175.079 - 153 ) / (3 * 2.106) = 22.079 / 6.318 = 3.49

The process is not capable because the lowest Cpk which is 1.89 ≈ 1.9 is far from the ideal 1.33 capability index number ( N0 )

c ) lowest setting

calculate the value of the mean using capability index of 1.33

Cpk = (upper value - mean ) / 3 * std

mean = 187 - 1.33 * 3 * 2.106

           = 187 - 8.40 = 178.60 grams

Cpk = ( process mean - lower value ) / 3 * std

 mean = 1.33 * 3 * 2.106 + 153

            = 8.40 + 153 = 161.40 grams

the lowest setting in ounces

= 178.60 / ( 6 bar * 28 .33)

= 178.60 / 169.98 = 1.051 ounces

5 0
3 years ago
g which is debt-free and finances only with equity from retained earnings. You were given the following information: rRF = 3.50%
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer: 7.46%

Explanation:

The CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL is a very useful tool for calculating a firm's Cost of Equity.

The Formula is,

Rc = Rrf + b(Rpm)

Where,

Rc is the Cost of Equity

Rpf is the Risk risk free rate

b is beta

Rpm is the risk premium

Plugging in the digits we have,

Rc = 0.0350 + 0.88(0.045)

= 0.0746

The firm's cost of equity from retained earnings based on the CAPM is therefore 7.46%

3 0
3 years ago
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