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Strike441 [17]
3 years ago
10

Any one know the answer

Mathematics
2 answers:
Komok [63]3 years ago
7 0

answer: b

work:

let's solve by looking at the options.

<em>option one: </em>we can see right away that this is incorrect because it involves multiplication, and the first operation is multiplying 30 x 10. since the number is 30.425, only slightly more than 30, we know this isn't an option since 30 x 10 is 300, and the number only gets bigger from there.

<em>option two: </em>this option is correct. in standard form, thirty is 30, and four hundred twenty five thousandths is ".425", so putting those together you get 30.425

<em>options three and four:  </em>we already know these are incorrect because b is the answer, but option three has adding 4 to 3 x 10, which results in 34, which is already larger than 30.425. lastly, the last one is also incorrect because it doesn't have thousandths at the end, which it needs, and doesn't make sense otherwise.

Mice21 [21]3 years ago
4 0

Im pretty sure it is B

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Answer:

a) For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

b) P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

c) P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

d) P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n p)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Part a

For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)

And replacing we got:

P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And replacing we got:

P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

Part d

For this cae we want thi probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complment rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

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Answer:

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