It depends on the era, peasants that lived in areas with little people speaked English, while the others in congress or in other places near the King speaked Latin, so the answer to that would be False.
It is true that peasants spoke the English language in the Middle Ages because otherwise they could not have understood the new laws and obligations made by the kings and their officials, and, thus, they could not have rebelled against them, as it can be seen in the list of peasants´ revolts.
<em>Sorry, I could not see that there was already an answer; a technical error.</em>
