Answer:
Explanation:
Given
and
Required
Show that they are equivalent
To do this, we simply convert both fractions to either decimal or improper fraction
Using improper fraction
After converting both to improper fraction, we have:
<em>Hence, both are equivalent</em>
Answer:
Direct labor hour will be 158000
Explanation:
We have given manufacturing overhead cost = $510000
An total budgeted manufacturing cost = $984000
So balance variable cost = $984000 - $51000 = $474000
It is given that $3 per direct labor hour
We have to fond the number of labor hours
So number of direct labor hours will be
So dire t labor hour will be 158000
Answer:
The amount of paid-in capital $
Common stocks (22,000 x $2) 44,000
Preferred stocks (1,800 x $120) 216,000
Amount of paid-in capital 260,000
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
The amount of paid-in capital is the total of paid-in capital of common stocks and paid-in capital of preferred stocks. The paid-in capital of each stock is computed as number of stock multiplied by par value of each stock.
Answer:
37,500 adults visits to break even
Explanation:
In this case, we don't need to cover the ntire fixed cost with adult visits, as some portion is cover with children visits:
500,000 fixed cost
40% cover by children
500,000 - 40% = 300,000
Then each adult contribution is 8 EUR so we calculate the Break-even point in adul visits:
300,000 / 8 EUR per adult = 37,500 adults visits
Answer:
$21.859
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Present Value = D0 × (1 + growth rate)^time ÷ (1 + Required Rate of Return)^time period
1st Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^1 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^1
= 1.20 ÷ 1.12
= 1.071
2nd Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^2
= $1 × (1.44) ÷ 1.254
= $1.148
3rd Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10) ÷ (1 + 0.12)^3
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.10) ÷ 1.405
= $1.127
4th Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10)^2 ÷ ( 1 +0.12)^4
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.21) ÷ 1.574
= $1.107
5th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × ( 1 +0.10)^3 ÷ (1 + 0.12)^5
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) ÷ 1.762
= $1.088
6th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + .10)^3 × (1.05) ÷ [(0.12 - 0.05) × (1+.12)^5]
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) × (1.05) ÷ (0.07) × (1.762)
= $2.012 ÷ 0.1233
= $16.318
Now
Share’s Current Value is
= $1.071 + $1.148 + $1.127 + $1.107 + $1.088 + $16.318
= $21.859
We simply applied the above formula