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Gekata [30.6K]
3 years ago
8

Why did the Colonists fight the British? Select all that Apply’s to this question

History
1 answer:
Zolol [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A, B, and C

Explanation:

Visitation by the king wasn't deemed to cause the war.

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What problem would Spain have if Cuba and the Philippines revolted at the same time
Sergio [31]

What did war with Spain in Cuba have to do with the Philippines?

In it, Spain renounced all claim to Cuba, ceded Guam and Puerto Rico to the United States and transferred sovereignty over the Philippines to the United States for $20 million. ... The Philippine-American War began in February of 1899 and lasted until 1902.

Hoped that helped:)

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Why did France and Spain wait so long to officially support the colonial army?<br>​
Helga [31]

Answer:

Countries such as France and Spain saw Britain as their enemy. By aiding the Americans they were also hurting their enemy. ... Personal Gain - The allies hoped to regain some of the territory they had lost during the Seven Years' War as well as gain a new trade partner in the United States

Explanation:

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How does Jean Bodin define absolute rule?
sammy [17]

The writings of Jean Bodin provides us with an early theorisation of the idea of sovereignty even though the examples he uses are quite extensive. Essential to Bodin's notion of sovereignty is that the power the sovereign holds must be absolute and permanent. If a ruler holds absolute power for the duration of his life he can be said to be sovereign. In contrast, an elected official or some other person that holds limited powers can not be described to be sovereign. Although at times Bodin suggests that the people are sovereign, his definition of sovereignty as absolute, unlimited and enduring power points purposively towards a positive association of sovereignty and a singular monarchical, or even tyrannical, power.

Another qualification that Bodin introduces into the definition of sovereignty as absolute and perpetual is one that will become increasingly important in subsequent theorisations, culminating in the work of Carl Schmitt. For Bodin, a sovereign prince is one who is exempt from obedience to the laws of his predecessors and more importantly, those issued by himself. Sovereignty rests in being above, beyond or excepted from the law. Although it occupies a subordinate place in Bodin's theorisation, it could be said that this exception from being subject to the law is the quintessential condition of sovereignty in so far as it is understood politically.

Although for Bodin sovereignty is characterised by absolute and perpetual power he goes on to make a series of important qualifications to this concept. These come from two principle concerns. The first is real politics - Bodin seems to be aware that absolute power could licence behaviour injurious to sovereign authority. Hence for example a sovereign cannot and should not confiscate property nor break contractual agreements made with other sovereigns, estates nor private persons. The second reason is Bodin's underlying theological notion of divine authority and natural law. A sovereign may put aside civil law, but he must not question natural law (in which it appears right of property is sanctioned). Saying this, it is ultimately from this divine authority that the earthly right of sovereign power is legitimated. The prince literary does god's bidding, and yet by virtue of this can do wrong. Hopefully this helps out some :)

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What was the mortill land grant
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The Morrill Land-Grant Acts are United States statutes that allowed for the creation of land-grant colleges in U.S. states using the proceeds of federal land sales.

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