Answer:
Its very simple, the required return would be 12% of the amount invested today. And this can be explained by the use of DVM (Dividend valuation Model), which is as under:
For ordinary shares r = (Dividend after one year / Share price now)
Dividend after one year = Required return * Share Price Now
Assuming no growth in the dividends, we can say that the required return would be 12% of the amount invested now which is the share price of the ordinary shares.
Answer:
July 24 Cash $1470 Dr
Discount allowed $30 Dr
Account Receivable $1500 Cr
Explanation:
The receipt of payment for accounts due will cause a credit to accounts receivable for that particular debtor along with a debit to cash as payment is received. However, as there were some sales returns, the outstanding amount in the accounts receivble account was sales less sales returns that is 3100 - 1600 = 1500.
The terms state 2/10, n/30 which means 2% cash discount is allowed if payment is made within 10 days of sale. The payment is made within 10 days, as July 24 falls under this period so cash received will be 1500 * 98% = 1470.
While Accounts recevables will be reduced by 1500. The difference of 30 is discount allowed and it is an expense and will be debitted.
Answer:
Nursing
Explanation:
I took the test and got it right
Answer:
Is equal to zero if the decrease in the net fixed assets is equal to the depreciation expense
Explanation:
Net capital spending in domain of finance can be regarded as net amount that is been spent by a firm for the purpose of acquiring fixed assets at a particular period of time, this gives indication regards the growth of that fixed assets of that particular company. During the expansion phase there is usually high amount of net capital spending. It should be noted that Net capital spending Is equal to zero if the decrease in the net fixed assets is equal to the depreciation expense
Answer:
bruh ok look its A
Explanation:
because this fool just got me wrong
