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nadezda [96]
3 years ago
8

Is shift work involved in electrician?

Business
1 answer:
Hunter-Best [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

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Sigmund Jewelers creates inexpensive costume necklaces, bracelets, and rings. As a way to save costs on sending out these small
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

shipment consolidation

Explanation:

The primary aim of the consolidation of shipments is to evaluate cost control and cost control. The aggregation of shipments allows individuals or businesses to save costs thereby integrating several products from different shippers into one shipment.

Therefore in the given case, since the company wants to combine 10 to 12 different orders into one shipment so that the company could save the cost

Hence, the shipment consolidation is correct

6 0
3 years ago
On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible. What entry should be recorded on February
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible.

The entry to be recorded on February 1 to record the write-off assuming the company uses the allowance method is:

Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,700; credit Accounts Receivable $2,700.

Explanation:

Using the allowance method, every bad debt entry is first reflected in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before it is taken to the bad debt expense account.

The entries above reduce the Accounts Receivable account by the amount of the write-off and reduces the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts by the same amount.  Any recovery of written off debt is also treated in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and the Accounts Receivable account in revised order.  This method is unlike the direct write-off method.  With the direct write-off method, the Accounts Receivable is credited with the amount of the write-off and the write-off is expensed in the Bad Debts Expense account directly.

5 0
3 years ago
Computer Consultants Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and cost of capital (r) data. What is the pr
Korolek [52]

Answer:

e. 14.20%

Explanation:

We use the formula:

A=P(1+r/100)^n

where

A=future value

P=present value

r=rate of interest

n=time period.

Hence

A=$450(1.1)^2+$450(1.1)^1+$450

=$450[(1.1)^2+(1.1)+1]

=$1489.50

Hence

MIRR=[Future value of inflows/Present value of outflows]^(1/time period)-1

=[1489.5/1000]^(1/3)-1

=14.20%(Approx)

4 0
3 years ago
Complete the statements and then calculate the change in consumption. The consumption function shows the relationship between co
wel

Answer:

3821 irjejjejjwjwjwjdjdjskskskskakakakakskaka

3 0
3 years ago
You manage an equity fund with an expected risk premium of 13% and a standard deviation of 44%. The rate on Treasury bills is 6.
Nady [450]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the expected return and the standard deviation is given below:

the expected return is

= $90,000 × 13% + $60,000 × 6.6%

= $15,660.00

And,

standard deviation of return is

= $90,000 × 13% × 44% + $60,000 × 6.6%

= $5,148 + $3,960

= $9,108.00

In this way it should be calculated

8 0
3 years ago
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