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3 years ago

Help me please with explanation

Mathematics

1 answer:

8_murik_8 [283]3 years ago

7 0

Step-by-step explanation:

angle AOB = x+3

angle AOC = 2x + 11

angle BOC = 4x-7

angle AOC = angle AOB + angle BOC

=> 2x +11 = (x+3) + (4x-7)

2x +11 = 5x - 4

=> 3x = 15

x = 5

subst x = 5 in the given formulas

angle AOB = x +3 =8

angle AOC = 2x + 11 = 21

angle BOC = 4x - 7 = 13

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Scenario: The Cannon Instructions: View the video found on page 1 of this Journal activity. Using the information provided in th

Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

Part A

Yes

Part B

He will land at a point 30 meters from Cannon

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A

The given function that represent the path of the Cannon, which is the path of a parabolic arc, is presented as follows;

f(x) = -0.05·(x² - 26·x - 120)

We note that the height, 'h', of the path of a parabola at a horizontal distance, 'x' from the origin is equal to f(x)

Therefore, given that at the ground level, at the start and end of the flight, the f(x) = 0, we can write;

-0.05·(x² - 26·x - 120) = 0

∴ x² - 26·x - 120 = 0

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Which gives;

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Therefore, he lands at a point 30 meters from the starting point

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Part B

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2 years ago

Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries

kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}
$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

$\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04$

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

$P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1$

We want $P(X \geq 1)$ . Then

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)$

In which

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}
$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535
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$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465$

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

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2 years ago

Rewrite 32/35 and 9/10

hram777 [196]

The question was incorrect. Please find the correct content below.

Compare 32/35 and 9/10.

Comparing 32/35 and 9/10 we have 32/35 is greater than 9/10, that is 32/35 > 9/10.

Fraction is the ratio of two numbers. The upper number is called Numerator and the Lower number is called the Denominator.

We know that if the denominators are the same for two fractions then which has the greatest numerator is a greater fraction than the other.

Given the fractions are 32/35, 9/10

To compare this two fractions we have to make denominators equal first.

LCM of 10,35 = 70

Calculating the fractions,

32/35 = (32*2)/(35*2) = 64/70

9/10 = (9*7)/(10*7) = 63/70

Since 64 > 63

So 64/70 > 63/70

Therefore, 32/35 > 9/10

Hence fraction 32/35 is greater than the other fraction 9/10.

Learn more about Fraction here -

brainly.com/question/78672

#SPJ10

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1 year ago