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snow_lady [41]
3 years ago
13

For an automobile company, the total overhead applied was $48,000,000 at the end of the year. Actual overhead was $52,850,000. C

losing over/under applied overhead into cost of goods sold would cause net income to:
Business
1 answer:
ICE Princess25 [194]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Net income decreased by $4,850,000.

Explanation:

Given total overhead applied = $48000000

The actual overhead = $52850000

Over/under Applied overhead = total overhead applied - Actual overhead at the end of the year.

Over / under Applied overhead = 48000000-52850000

Over / under Applied overhead = -$4850000

From the calculation, it can be seen that the overhead is underapplied therefore when under applied overhead allocated to cost of goods sold then cost of goods sold decreased by $4850000.

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White Corporation, a closely held personal service corporation, has $150,000 of passive activity losses, $120,000 of active busi
LenKa [72]

Answer:

correct option is a.$0

Explanation:

given data

passive activity losses = $150,000

active business income = $120,000

portfolio income = $30,000  

to find out  

how much passive activity loss can White Corporation deduct

solution

as per given we know that here white corporation is a Personal Service Corporation

so that it is not deduct the passive loss against the portfolio income

so correct option is a.$0

3 0
4 years ago
The Nixon Corporation’s common stock has a beta of 1.7. If the risk-free rate is 4.8 percent and the expected return on the mark
Archy [21]

Answer:

13.64%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 4.8% + 1.7 × (10% - 4.8%)

= 4.8% + 1.7 × 5.2%

= 4.8% + 8.84%

= 13.64%

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also called market risk premium

6 0
3 years ago
Blackstone Technology is planning to invest in some project using external equity. The company has a beta of 1.1. The return on
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

Cost of equity = 19.1 %

Explanation:

Cost of equity = required rate of return + flotation cost

The Capital assets pricing model would be used to determined  the required rate of return

<em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM): relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c  </em>

Using the CAPM , the required rate of return is given as follows:  

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)  

E(r) - required return

β- Beta

Rm- Return on market

Rf- Risk-free rate

DATA

E(r) =? , Rf- 3%, Rm-14% , β- 1.1, flotation cost - 4%

E(r) = 3% + 1.1× (14% - 3%) = 15.1 %

Cost of equity = required rate of return + flotation cost

                        = 15.1 % + 4% = 19.1 %

Cost of equity = 19.1 %

7 0
3 years ago
With regards to interpretation, what are the important areas that appear on a cvp graph?.
NeTakaya

The important areas that appear on a CVP graph includes break-even point, loss area, and profit area

<h3>What is CVP graph?</h3>

A Cost volume profit (CVP) graph is a graph that shows the relationship between the cost of production and the overall sales.

In conclusion, the important areas that appear on a cvp graph includes break-even point, loss area and profit area.

Read more about cvp graph

<em>brainly.com/question/26574343</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Sarah can study 20 pages per night. each page has three homework problems. if she studies for 3 nights how many homework problem
ss7ja [257]
20 pages in one night times 3 nights = 60. 60 pages times 3 problems per page is 180 problems.

20*3=60
60*3=180
7 0
3 years ago
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