Answer:
price for a monopolistically competitive firm exceeds the marginal cost
Explanation:
Monopolistically competitive firms do not achieve allocative efficiency because the <em>"price for a monopolistically competitive firm exceeds the marginal cost"</em>
Allocative efficiency is known to be an economic concept which actually regards efficiency at the societal level. This usually refers to the production of the optimal quantity of some output. The quantity produced is actually the marginal benefit of one more unit which the society enjoys and which is equal to the marginal cost.
In a monopolistically competitive industry, they will produce a lower quantity of a good and then their prices will be higher than would a perfectly competitive industry. A monopolistic competitive firm’s demand curve actually slopes downward. This then means that it will charge a price that exceeds marginal costs.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": it would reduce the lags inherent in monetary policy.
Explanation:
Inflation targeting is a monetary policy in which the central bank sets a specific target for medium-term inflation and declares the target for inflation. The idea is that maintaining price stability is the best that monetary policy can do to support the economy in the long run.
Answer:
To calculate the after-tax cost of debt, multiply the before-tax cost of debt by <u>(1 - tax rate)</u>.
Water and Power Company (WPC) can borrow funds at an interest rate of 10.20% for a period of four years. Its marginal federal-plus-state tax rate is 45%. WPC's after-tax cost of debt is <u>= 10.20% x (1 - 45%) = 5.61%</u>.
At the present time, Water and Power Company (WPC) has 15-year noncallable bonds with a face value of $1,000 that are outstanding. These bonds have a current market price of $1,329.55 per bond, carry a coupon rate of 12%, and distribute annual coupon payments. The company incurs a federal-plus-state tax rate of 45%. If WPC wants to issue new debt, what would be a reasonable estimate for its after-tax cost of debt (rounded to two decimal places)?
<u>B. 4.47%</u>
pre-tax cost of debt = bond's yield to maturity
approximate YTM = {120 + [(1,000 - 1,329.55)/15] / [(1,000 + 1,329.55)/2] = 98.03 / 1,164.775 = 0.08416 = 8.416%
approximate after tax cost of debt = 8.4% x (1 - 45%) = 4.62 = 4.62
since I used the approximate yield to maturity, my answer is not exact. That is why I have to look for the closest available option.
Answer:
The present of value of the bonds payable is $ 109,893.83
Explanation:
The present value of the bonds payable is the present of semiannual coupon payments as well as the repayment of face value in year 4.
coupon payments =$100,000*12%*6/12=$6,000
Face value receivable in year 4 is $100,000
Find attached spreadsheet detailing the computation of present value
Answer: А. large, more heavily populated, economies like China
Explanation:
Larger countries like China and the US have a higher population which will mean that domestically, they produce quite a lot and so percentage wise would be able to rely less on foreign trade as they will produce a lot of things for themselves.
Smaller countries like Singapore however, will be unable to produce much of what they need and so will have to engage in foreign trade more than larger countries, percentage wise.
Mathematically speaking. Percentage wise, larger countries will rely less on foreign trade because foreign trade will be less compared to their large economies. The reverse is true for smaller countries.